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Rainbow [258]
2 years ago
9

The master budget of Carpenter Company shows that the planned activity level for next year is expected to be 100,000 machine hou

rs. At this level of activity, the following manufacturing overhead costs are expected: Indirect labor $480,000 Machine supplies 120,000 Indirect materials 140,000 Depreciation on factory building 100,000 Total manufacturing overhead $840,000 A flexible budget for a level of activity of 120,000 machine hours would show total manufacturing overhead costs of:
Business
1 answer:
Gnom [1K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total overhead cost= $988,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Activity level= 100,000 machine hours

Indirect labor $480,000

Machine supplies 120,000

Indirect materials 140,000

Depreciation on factory building 100,000

First, we need to calculate the unitary overhead costs per machine-hours. <u>Depreciation is a fixed cost.</u>

Indirect labor= 480,000/100,000= $4.8

Machine supplies= 120,000/100,000= $1.2

Indirect materials= 140,000/100,000= $1.4

<u>Now, we can determine the total overhead cost for 120,000 machine hours.</u>

<u></u>

Indirect labor= 4.8*120,000= 576,000

Machine supplies= 1.2*120,000= 144,000

Indirect materials= 1.4*120,000= 168,000

Depreciation= 100,000

Total overhead cost= $988,000

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Great Falls Co's bank reconciliation as of February 28 is shown below $38,153 +745 -35 $37,643 Book balance Bank balance + Depos
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

c. Debit Cash $745; credit Note Receivable $745.

Explanation:

It is very difficult to understand your question since it is typed in a very complex manner. I have attached a screen shot that contains the similar question, it helped me and will help others to understand the data given.

a. This entry has already been recorded in the company's accounts. It should be reconciled with the Bank Account.

b. A miscellaneous expense has been incurred but it was paid and not on credit.

c. Correct Entry. As you can see that a Note Receivable has been collected by bank from customer. So, we have to increase the Cash balance by debiting it and remove the receivables by crediting it.

d. Sales transaction is never a part of Bank Reconciliation.

e. $745 has been collected from customer and not paid to vendor. The amount paid is $1,730 which is already recorded in the Books.

4 0
2 years ago
DS Unlimited has the following transactions during August. August 6 Purchases 84 handheld game devices on account from GamerGirl
damaskus [11]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

On August 6

Merchandise Inventory A/c Dr $22,680   (84 handheld games × $270)

            To Account payable A/c $22,680

(Being the inventory purchased is recorded)

On August 7

Merchandise Inventory A/c Dr $470

      To Cash A/c $470

(Being the freight cost is paid)

On August 10

Account payable A/c $2,430       (9 handheld games × $270)

       To Merchandise inventory A/c  $2,430

(Being the goods are returned)

On August 14

Account payable A/c Dr $20,250    ($22,680 - $2,430)

        To Merchandise Inventory A/c $405      ($20,250 × 2%)

        To Cash A/c $19,845

(Being the amount due is paid)

On August 23

Accounts Receivable A/c Dr $18,560     (64 handheld games × $290)

        To Sales revenue A/c $18,560

(Being the sales on credit basis is recorded)

Cost of goods sold A/c Dr $17,335

       To Merchandise Inventory A/c  $17,335

(Being the total cost is recorded)

7 0
2 years ago
Aseller closed on his house on november 15. the annual tax bill for the current year is $1,475, which will be paid in arrears by
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

$1,291

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Per day allocation = $1,475 ÷ 360 days = 4.0972

Now the days of the seller is counted from January to October month i.e

= 10 months × 30 days

= 300 days

And, add the 15 days of November, so the total number of  days is 315 days

So, the seller portion of the tax is

= 315 days ×  4.0972

= $1,291

The calendar year started from January month and we take the same for the above calculation

7 0
2 years ago
A local pizzeria sells 500 large pepperoni pizzas per week at a price of $20 each. Suppose the owner of the pizzeria tells you t
kotegsom [21]

Answer: (1) 700 pizzas

(2) Its revenue increases by $2600.

Explanation:

Given that,

price elasticity of demand for his pizza = -4

Percentage change in price = 10%

Initial Quantity,Q_{0} = 500 Pizzas

Elasticity of demand = \frac{Percentage\ change\ in\ quantity }{Percentage\ change\ in\ price }

-4 = \frac{Percentage\ change\ in\ quantity }{0.1 }

\frac{Percentage\ change\ in\ quantity } = -4 × 0.1

\frac{Q_{1}-Q_{0}}{Q_{0}} = 0.4

\frac{Q_{1}-500}{500} = 0.4

∴ Q_{1} = 700

Initial price, P_{0} = $20

Changed price, P_{1} = $18

Revenue at t = 0

P_{0} Q_{0} = 500 × 20 =$10000

Revenue at t = 1

P_{1} Q_{1} = 700 × 18 = $12600

Therefore, from the above calculations it was seen that his revenue increases by ($12600 - $10000)= $2600 and its sales increases to 700.

8 0
2 years ago
Pendergast, Inc., has no debt outstanding, and has a total market value of $180,000. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) a
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

See the explanation below:

Explanation:

a- Calculate ROE and EPS under each of the economic scenarios before any debt is issued.

Under an expansion

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600

Earnings after taxes = $27,600 * (100% - 35%) = $17,940

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $17,940 / $180,000 =

0.0997, or 9.97%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $17,940 /

6,000 = $2.99 per share

Under a recession

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100

Earnings after taxes = $16,100 * (100% - 35%) = $10,465

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $10,465 / $180,000 =

0.0581, or 5.81%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $10,465 /

6,000 = $1.74 per share

b- Repeat part a, assuming that the company goes through with the capitalization.

Under an expansion

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600

Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250

Page 2 of 2

Earnings after interest = $27,600 - $5,250 = $22,350

Earnings after taxes = $22,350 * (100% - 35%) = $14,527.50

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $14,527.50/ $180,000 =

0.0807, or 8.07%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $14,527.50 /

6,000 = $2.42 per share

Under a recession

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100

Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250

Earnings after interest = $16,100 - $5,250 = $10,850

Earnings after taxes = $10,850 * (100% - 35%) = $7,052.50

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $7,052.50 / $180,000 =

0.0392, or 3.92%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $7,052.50 /

6,000 = $1.18 per share

c- Calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession.

Percentage change under expansion = ($2.42 - $2.99)/$2.99 = 0.1902 decrease, or 19.02% decrease.

Percentage change under recession = ($1.18 - $1.74)/ $1.74 = 0.3218 decrease, or 32.18% decrease

5 0
2 years ago
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