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Setler [38]
2 years ago
7

In its most recent financial statements, Del-Castillo Inc. reported $70 million of net income and $960 million of retained earni

ngs. The previous retained earnings were $943 million. How much in dividends did the firm pay to shareholders during the year? Enter your answer in dollars. For example, an answer of $1.2 million should be entered as 1,200,000.
Business
1 answer:
alekssr [168]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$53,000,000

Explanation:

The amount of dividends paid by Del-Castillo Inc. can be ascertained using the retained earnings formula as follows:

retained earnings=net income+previous year retained earnings-dividends paid

retained earnings for current year is $960 million

net income is $70 million

previous year retained earnings were $943 million

dividends paid is unknown

dividends=net income+previous year retained earnings-current year retained earnings

dividends=$70 million+$943 million-$960 million

dividends=$53 million

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Jeremy is studying the effects of income on the demand for Greek ceramics. If "ceteris paribus" is used, which factors would be
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

B) all factors affecting demand, except income

Explanation:

Ceteris paribus can be used to identify the relationship between two specific variables, while leaving all other factors constant. In this case, since Jeremy is studying the effects of income on the demand (of anything really, not only Greek ceramics), it should affect all factors affecting demand except income. Jeremy is going to analyze how the quantity demanded changes when the income changes, all other things constant.

8 0
2 years ago
Marko Shioda, master scheduler at Randall Manufacturing Company, prepared the following MPS for one of the firm's major end prod
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

Explanation:

MPS Week 1 = 150

It takes 3 widgets for 1 WhatchaMacalit.

Widgets required Week 1 = 150 *3 = 450

Painting hours required Week 1 = 450*0.5 = 225 hours

Painting hours required Week 2 = 120*3*0.5 = 180 hours

Similarly, Week 3 = 75 hours

Week #        1 2 3

Widget paint 225 180 75

5 0
2 years ago
The bookbinder company has made $150,000 before taxes during each of the last 15 years, and it expects to make $150,000 a year b
allochka39001 [22]

A company can carryback losses up to 3 years. This means that the company can use its 525,000 2015 loss to obtain a credit for income taxes paid in the previous 3 years, 2012-2014. The calculation is as follows:

2012 Carryback: 150,000 x .35 = 52,500

2013 Carryback: 150,000 x .35= 52,500

2014 Carryback: 150,000 x .35 = 52,500

The check that Book Binder receives will be 52,500 x 3 = 157,500.

Its tax liability in 2015 will be zero, and its loss eligible for carryforward will be 525,000-450,000=75,000, since it has already carried back $450,000 of its loss (2012-2014 income).

Its liabilities in future years will be:

2016: (150,000-75,000) x .35 = 26,250. We have now exhausted all tax credits possible from the 2015 loss.

2017-20: 150,000 x .35 = 52,500

4 0
2 years ago
Pendergast, Inc., has no debt outstanding, and has a total market value of $180,000. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) a
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

See the explanation below:

Explanation:

a- Calculate ROE and EPS under each of the economic scenarios before any debt is issued.

Under an expansion

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600

Earnings after taxes = $27,600 * (100% - 35%) = $17,940

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $17,940 / $180,000 =

0.0997, or 9.97%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $17,940 /

6,000 = $2.99 per share

Under a recession

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100

Earnings after taxes = $16,100 * (100% - 35%) = $10,465

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $10,465 / $180,000 =

0.0581, or 5.81%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $10,465 /

6,000 = $1.74 per share

b- Repeat part a, assuming that the company goes through with the capitalization.

Under an expansion

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% + 20%) = $27,600

Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250

Page 2 of 2

Earnings after interest = $27,600 - $5,250 = $22,350

Earnings after taxes = $22,350 * (100% - 35%) = $14,527.50

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $14,527.50/ $180,000 =

0.0807, or 8.07%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $14,527.50 /

6,000 = $2.42 per share

Under a recession

Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) = $23,000 * (100% - 30%) = $16,100

Interest on debt = $75,000 * 7% = $5,250

Earnings after interest = $16,100 - $5,250 = $10,850

Earnings after taxes = $10,850 * (100% - 35%) = $7,052.50

Return on equity (ROE) = Earnings after taxes / Total market value of equity = $7,052.50 / $180,000 =

0.0392, or 3.92%

Earnings per share (EPS) = Earnings after taxes / Number of shares of stock outstanding = $7,052.50 /

6,000 = $1.18 per share

c- Calculate the percentage changes in EPS when the economy expands or enters a recession.

Percentage change under expansion = ($2.42 - $2.99)/$2.99 = 0.1902 decrease, or 19.02% decrease.

Percentage change under recession = ($1.18 - $1.74)/ $1.74 = 0.3218 decrease, or 32.18% decrease

5 0
2 years ago
Thomas Textiles Corporation began November with a budget for 60,000 hours of production in the Weaving Department. The departmen
netineya [11]

Answer:

a) $12,500 unfavorable

b) 0

Explanation:

variable factory overhead controllable variance = actual variable overhead expense - (standard variable overhead per unit x standard number of units)

actual variable overhead expense = $725,000

standard variable overhead per unit = $712,500 / 60,000 = $11.875

standard number of units = 60,000

variable factory overhead controllable variance = $725,000 - $712,500 = $12,500 unfavorable

Controllable factory overhead is not related to any changes in the actual volume or quantity produced.

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = actual fixed overhead - standard fixed overhead = $262,500 - $262,500 = 0

Fixed overhead was exactly the same as the standard or budgeted overhead.

6 0
2 years ago
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