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vladimir1956 [14]
1 year ago
10

Marko Shioda, master scheduler at Randall Manufacturing Company, prepared the following MPS for one of the firm's major end prod

ucts, the Genuine Whatcha Macallit.
Week # 1 2 3
MPS 150 120 50

Mariko is concerned about this schedule’s impact on Widgets. It takes 3 Widgets to make each WhatchaMacalit. The two bottleneck work centers for producing Widgets are the "paint" work center and also the "final test" work center. The production manager has indicated that testing each Widget requires 0.3 hours and painting each Widget requires .5 hours. Calculate the labor hours needed (rough-cut capacity analysis) for the "paint" work center.Week # 1 2 3Widget paint
Business
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

MPS Week 1 = 150

It takes 3 widgets for 1 WhatchaMacalit.

Widgets required Week 1 = 150 *3 = 450

Painting hours required Week 1 = 450*0.5 = 225 hours

Painting hours required Week 2 = 120*3*0.5 = 180 hours

Similarly, Week 3 = 75 hours

Week #        1 2 3

Widget paint 225 180 75

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A company like Golf USA that sells golf-related inventory typically will have inventory items such as golf clothing and golf equ
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

1. $16,350

2. Debit Inventory writeoff (p/l)   $1,650

   Credit Inventory                       $1,650

3. This adjustment will reduce the value of the total assets by $1,650. The total expense will also increase by the same amount thus reducing the net income.

Explanation:

According to IAS 2 inventories which is the accounting standard for Inventories under IFRS, Inventory should initially be recognized at the cost (which includes the cost of the item and other associated cost such as freight).

However, it is required that subsequently, inventory would be measured at the lower of cost or net realizable value. When the cost is higher than the net realizable value, the cost of the inventory will be written down by

Debit Inventory write-off (p/l)

Credit Inventory

Inventory                 Quantity        Cost            NRV        New Amount

Shirts                            35              $60            $70              $60

Mega Driver                 15               $360          $250           $250

Mega Driver II              30              $350           $420          $350

Of all the items , only Mega driver has a cost higher than NRV and the adjustment required amounts to

= (360 - 250) * 15

= $1,650

Ending inventory using the lower of cost and net realizable value.

= (35 * 60) + (15 * 250) + (30 * 350)

= $16,350

Adjustment required

Debit Inventory writeoff (p/l)   $1,650

Credit Inventory                       $1,650

This adjustment will reduce the value of the total assets by $1,650. The total expense will also increase by the same amount thus reducing the net income.

4 0
2 years ago
(Prepared from a situation suggested by Professor John W. Hardy.) Lone Star Meat Packers is a major processor of beef and other
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

1 Pound T-bone:

Selling price ($7.95 per pound) $ 7.95

Joint costs= $3.80

Profit per pound $ 4.15

Further process:

It costs $0.55 to further process one T-bone steak.

6-ounce filet mignon and one 8-ounce New York cut.

The filet mignon can be sold for $12.00 per pound, and the New York cut can be sold for $8.80 per pound.

A) Filet mignon: $12.00 pound

1 ounce= 16 ounce

0.375= 6 ounce

Price= 0.375*12= $4.5

New York cut= $8.80 a pound

Price= 0.5*8.80= $4.4

Sales= 4.5+4.4= $8.9

Costs= 3.80 + 0.55= 4.35

Profit= $4.55

B) It is more profitable to further process the T-bone stake by $0.40.

7 0
2 years ago
A proposed project has fixed costs of $83,000 per year. The operating cash flow at 9,100 units is $ 102,900. Ignoring the effect
natta225 [31]

Answer:

Ignoring the effect of taxes, what is the degree of operating leverage?

  • 1.81

If units sold rise from 9,100 to 9,500, what will be the increase in operating cash flow?

  • $8,171.43 or 7.94%

what is the new degree of operating leverage?

  • 1.75

Explanation:

degree of operating leverage = (units sold x contribution margin) / [(units sold x contribution margin) - fixed costs]

(units sold x contribution margin) - fixed costs] = $102,900

units sold x contribution margin = $102,900 + $83,000 = $185,900

degree of operating leverage = $185,900 / $102,900 = 1.81

contribution margin = $185,900 / 9,100 = $20.4286

operating cash flow (at 9,500 units) = (9,500 x $20.4286) - $83,000 = $111,071.43

operating cash flow will increase by $8,171.43 or 7.94%

new degree of operating leverage = $194,071.43 / $111,071.43 = 1.75

8 0
1 year ago
Columbia Corporation produces a single product. The company's variable costing income statement for November appears below: Colu
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

Value of closing Inventory under absorption costing = $56,610

Explanation:

Provided sales for the month = $902,000 a the rate of $22 per unit.

That means sales in units = $902,000/ $22 = 41,000 units.

Provided opening stock of finished goods = 8,770 units

Production for the month of November = 35,560 units

Closing inventory = Opening + Manufactured - Sales

                              = 8,770 + 35,560 - 41,000 = 3,330

Under absorption costing only manufacturing overheads are added to the cost of goods, operating expenses like selling & administrative do not form part of that.

Variable cost of goods sold do not include operating expenses, as variable selling expenses are provided separately.

Therefore cost of goods sold per unit = $574,000/41,000 = $14 per unit.

Variable selling expenses will not form part of value of closing inventory under absorption costing.

Fixed manufacturing expenses will be considered fully with the production quantity of 35,560 units as no production capacity has been provided.

Manufacturing fixed cost per unit = $106,680/35,560 = $3 per unit

Value of closing Inventory = Cost of goods sold per unit + Fixed cost per unit allocated

= ($14 X 3,330) + ($3 X 3,330) = $56,610

8 0
2 years ago
Suppose Boyson Corporation's projected free cash flow for next year is FCF1 = $150,000, and FCF is expected to grow at a constan
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

The total corporate value of the firm is $3,000,000

Explanation:

The total corporate value of the firm is computed as:

Total corporate value = FCF1 / (average cost of capital - Growth rate)

Where

FCF1 is $150,000

Growth rate is 6.5%

average cost of capital is 11.5%

Putting the values :

= $150,000 / (11.5% - 6.5%)

= $150,000 / 5%

= $3,000,000

8 0
2 years ago
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