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Flura [38]
2 years ago
14

Marcie and her husband, Franklin, each own 50 shares of Chestnut, Inc. Sally, Marcie's old high school friend, owns the remainin

g 50 shares (150 total shares outstanding). Chestnut redeems 40 of Marcie's shares for $38,000 (her adjusted basis was $5,000). What is the tax treatment of the basis of the shares redeemed
Business
1 answer:
RSB [31]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$38,000 Dividend

Explanation:

Based on the information given the tax treatment of the redemption to Marcie will be $38,000 dividend reason been that her husband shares was been attributed to her, and Since she owns 60 shares her remaining 10 shares including that of her husband 50 shares of Chestnut's will be 110 shares calculated as 150 shares - 40 shares outstanding.

Therefore when we look at this 60 shares/110 shares is greater than 50% which means that Marcie fails the 50% test which makes the redemption to be treated as a dividend.

Hence, the tax treatment of the basis of the shares redeemed will be $38,000 Dividend.

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College football attendance, especially student attendance, has been on the decline. In 2016, home attendance at major college f
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer:

B) higher, because more games are televised today.

Explanation:

Opportunity costs are the cost of choosing one alternative from another.

In this case, when college students attend college football games they are unable to do other activities while they are at the stadium or going to the stadium. The cost of those alternatives that are lost are higher now because many college football games are televised. So a student is now able to watch the game while doing other activities.  

6 0
2 years ago
A business owner makes 50 items a day. She spends 8 hours in producing those items. If hired elsewhere she could have earned $10
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Explicit costs = $10,000

Here, the implicit cost is the cost of sacrificing money income from job:

= $10 per hour × 8 hours a day × 30 days

= $2,400

Revenues:

= Items produced in a day × Selling price of each × 30 days

= 50 × $10 × 30

= $15,000

Therefore,

Economic profit for the month:

= Revenues - Explicit costs - Implicit cost

= $15,000 - $10,000 - $2,400

= $2,600

8 0
2 years ago
Bob,s candle factory is considering three different manufacturing options. Option A uses hand labor with fixed costs of $10,000
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

a. If demand for Bob's candles is 2500, which option should he pick?

  • OPTION A

and what is the cost?

  • $16,875

b. If demand for Bob's candles is 4500 which option should he $19,950

  • OPTION B

and what is the cost?

  • $19,950

Explanation:

Option A uses hand labor with fixed costs of $10,000 and variable costs of $2.75/candle.

Option B uses a combination of hand and automation with fixed costs of $15,000 and variable costs of $1.10/candle.

Option C is highly automated with fixed costs of $20,000 and variable costs of $0.75/candle.

demand = 2,500 units

option A = $10,000 + ($2.75 x 2,500) = $16,875

option B = $15,000 + ($1.10 x 2,500) = $17,750

option C = $20,000 + ($0.75 x 2,500) = $21,875

demand = 4,500 units

option A = $10,000 + ($2.75 x 4,500) = $22,375

option B = $15,000 + ($1.10 x 4,500) = $19,950

option C = $20,000 + ($0.75 x 4,500) = $23,375

3 0
2 years ago
You buy an eight-year bond that has a 5.50% current yield and a 5.50% coupon (paid annually). In one year, promised yields to ma
Dovator [93]

Answer:

The correct answer is 0.02%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Face Value = $1,000

Coupon rate = 5.5%

Coupon Payment = $1,000 x 5.50% = $55

Yield to Maturity = 6.50%

Time period = 7 years

So, we can calculate the holding period return by using following method:

Holding-period return = [(Coupon Payment + ( Price of bond after one year - Face value)) ÷ Face value] x 100

Where, Price of bond after one year = PV of coupon payment + PV of FV

= $55[PVIFA 6.50%, 7 Years] + $1,000[PVIFA 6.50%, 7 Years]

= [$55 × 5.48452] + [$1,000 × 0.64351]

= $945.15 ( Refer to PVIFA table)

So by putting the value in the formula, we get

= [{$55 + ($945.15 - $1,000)} ÷ $1,000] x 100

= [$0.15 ÷ $1,000] x 100

= 0.02%

5 0
2 years ago
How did the Gupta rulers improve the economy of India?
just olya [345]
A. would be your answer :) hope this helps 
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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