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Keith_Richards [23]
2 years ago
10

During the current year, Chudrick Corporation expects to produce 10,000 units and has budgeted the following: net income $300,00

0, variable costs $1,100,000, and fixed costs $100,000. It has invested assets of $1,500,000. The company’s budgeted ROI was 20%. What was its budgeted markup percentage using a full-cost approach?
Business
1 answer:
vodomira [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

25%

Explanation:

For the computation of budgeted markup percentage using a full-cost approach first we need to find out the profit expected and total cost which is shown below:-

Profit Expected = $1,500,000 × 20%

= $300,000

Total cost = Variable cost + Fixed cost

= $1,100,000 + $100,000

= $12,00,000

Budgeted Markup Percentage = Profit ÷ Total Cost

= $300,000 ÷ $12,00,000

= 25%

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The most viable target for her to engage will be the college students and their age group. In this way, she can also tap the tourist market without really having to do much. Hope this helps! Please put Brainliest! Have a great Day!
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Potential Market – the set of consumers who profess some level of interest in a defined market offer Mass Market – the set of co
dybincka [34]

Answer:

A

Potential market

Interested percentage of people x total population

1000000x20%

= 200000

B.

Mass market is potential market x those with requisite income in percentage

= 200000x50%

= 200000x0.5

= 100000

C

Available market is also mass market

= 100000

D.

Qualified market

Available market x minimum qualification in percentage

Percentage of Minimum qualification = 100 - 25%

= 75%

Qualified market = 100000x0.75

= 75000

4 0
1 year ago
Net interest margin—often referred to as spread—is the difference between the rate banks pay on deposits and the rate they charg
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

(a) P(X\:>\:5.40)=0.9938

(b) P(X\:

(c) X=4.975 percent

Explanation:

(a) Find the z-value that corresponds to 5.40 percent

.Z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

Z=\frac{5.40-4.15}{0.5}

Z=\frac{1.25}{0.5}=2.5

Hence the net interest margin of 5.40 percent is 2.5 standard deviation above the mean.

The area to the left of 2.5 from the standard normal distribution table is 0.9938.The probability that a randomly selected U.S. bank will have a net interest margin that exceeds 5.40 percent is 1-0.9938=0.0062

(b) The z-value that corresponds to 4.40 percent is Z=\frac{4.40-4.15}{0.5}=0.5The net interest margin of 4.40 percent is 0.5 standard deviation above the mean.

Using the normal distribution table, the area under the curve to the left of 0.5 is 0.6915

Therefore the probability that a randomly selected U.S. bank will have a net interest margin less than 4.40 percent is 0.6915

(c)  The z-value that corresponds to 95% which is 1.65

We substitute the 1.65 into the formula and solve for X.1.65=\frac{X-4.15}{0.5}

1.65\times 0.5=X-4.150.825=X-4.15

0.825+4.15=X

4.975=X

A bank that wants its net interest margin to be less than the net interest margins of 95 percent of all U.S. banks should set its net interest margin to 4.975 percent.

6 0
1 year ago
Recently, the Polish General Corporation, well-known for manufacturing appliances and automobile parts, initiated a $13 billion
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer:

Polish General Corporation is a new player in automobile production, their background for manufacturing automobile parts is an advantage as they can insource for parts.

The approach of giving ample time for trials is a good one. It will be a competitive advantage for the company if their products are synonymous with quality.

Their first product in the automobile market place should set a standard on which the company can build a long lasting brand.

So the decision by the manager to prolong trials is a wise one. The employees will also have mastered the process at the end of this period, having practices 60 - 100 times. Based on the expertise learnt products produced in the future will also have high quality.

Explanation:

5 0
1 year ago
Management of Plascencia Corporation is considering whether to purchase a new model 370 machine costing $465,000 or a new model
Bond [772]

Answer:

Sunk cost = WDV of old machinery costing $431,000 - Any amount recovered.

Explanation:

Sunk cost is the cost that has actually been incurred and can not be avoided in any manner, currently while making both the decisions whether to buy model 220 machine or 370 machine we incurred the cost of dropping the old machinery of value of $431,000.

Therefore the book value of old machinery costing $431,000 is the sunk cost incurred in making the decision of buying new model.

In case any amount is recovered from sale of such amount then such amount recovered shall be deducted from the Written down value (WDV) of the old machinery and that will be our sunk cost.

Sunk cost = WDV of old machinery costing $431,000 - Any amount recovered.

5 0
2 years ago
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