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laila [671]
1 year ago
6

On December 31, 2016 before adjusting entries, Accounts Receivable for Nickolas Company had a debit balance of $200,000, and the

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $6,000. Credit sales for the year were $1,600,000.
If credit losses are estimated at 1% of credit sales:

a. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be $10,000 after adjustment.
b. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be $22,000 after adjustment.
c. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be $16,000 after adjustment.
d. Bad Debts Expense for the year will be $22,000.
Business
1 answer:
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

b. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be $22,000 after adjustment.

Explanation:

If credit losses are estimated at 1% of credit sales than balance of allowance for doubtful account after adjustment will be = $6,000 + $1,600,000 * 1%

= $6,000 + $16,000

= $22,000

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matrenka [14]

Answer:

highest relative value highest dollar

Explanation:

The price to earning ratio is a financial metric used to value a company. it compares the price of a stock to the earnings of the stock. the higher the metric is, the higher the valuation of the firm

price to earning ratio (P / E) = market value per share / earnings

The higher the P/E, the higher the relative value of the firm relative to other firms. This is because investors are confident about the prospects of growth of the firm and are willing to pay a higher price for the stock of the company

Types of P/E ratio

1. trailing p/e - it is calculated by dividing current share price by the earnings per share for the past 12 months

2. forward p/e - it is calculated by dividing current share price by the estimated per share earnings for the next 12 months

5 0
1 year ago
A customer has requested that Lewelling Corporation fill a special order for 2,200 units of product S47 for $38 a unit. While th
lilavasa [31]
The answer is c did
8 0
1 year ago
If the direct quote for a U.S. investor for British pounds is $1.43/£, then the indirect quote for the U.S. investor would be __
Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

The answer is A. £0.699/$; £0.699/$

Explanation:

The direct quote for British investor is the same as the indirect quote for the U.S. investor.

Calculation is as follows; 1/1.43 = 0.699

7 0
2 years ago
Refer to the accompanying consumption schedule in an economy. All figures are in billions of dollars. If gross investment is $34
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

C+$64

Explanation:

The GDP measures the market value of all good and services produced in an economy (country or region) in a specific period of time. It is calculated by this formula:

GDP= Consumption (C)+ Investment (I)+ Government expenditure ()+ Net exports (exports-imports)

A lump-sum tax at all levels of GDP means that no matter what GDP value is, the tax will be the same amount. If the tax is collected by the government then the GDP will increase because the government expenditure is income ( most of them are taxes) minus expenses ( public investment in education, health, etc)

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8 0
1 year ago
Respass Corporation has provided the following data concerning an investment project that it is considering: Initial investment
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Answer:

$458.12

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Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 = $-160,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 3 = $54,000

cash flow in year 4 = $54,000 + $11,000 = $65,000

I = 15

NPV = $458.12

To find the NPV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

3 0
1 year ago
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