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nika2105 [10]
2 years ago
14

Ava said "There are only three hundred 3- diget numbers" is her statement true or faulse

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: False, there are actually 900 different three-digit numbers

========================================================

Explanation:

The three digit numbers span from 100 to 999, including both endpoints.

This means we have 999-100+1 = 900 different three-digit numbers.

You subtract the endpoints (large-small) and add 1 to include the lower endpoint.

Here's a smaller example of why this works: say you had the set {1,2,3,4} and we wanted to count the number of items in this set. Clearly there are 4 items. Note how subtracting the endpoints 4-1 gets us 3 instead, so we add on 1 to include that left endpoint.

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A new phone system was installed last year to help reduce the expense of personal calls that were being made by employees. Befor
Zolol [24]

Answer:

a. $302

Step-by-step explanation:

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this question, we have that:

\mu = 400, \sigma = 50

Point in the distribution below which 2.5% of the PCE's fell.

This is the 2.5th percentile, which is X when Z has a pvalue of 0.025. So it is X when Z = -1.96.

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

-1.96 = \frac{X - 400}{50}

X - 400 = -1.96*50

X = -1.96*50 + 400

X = 302

4 0
2 years ago
Suppose that in one region of the country the mean amount of credit card debt perhousehold in households having credit card debt
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

The probability that the mean amount of credit card debt in a sample of 1600 such households will be within $300 of the population mean is roughly 0.907 = 90.7%.

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we have to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal probability distribution:

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central limit theorem:

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a random variable X, with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, a large sample size can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean \mu and standard deviation s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}

In this problem, we have that:

\mu = 15250, \sigma = 7125, n = 1600, s = \frac{7125}{\sqrt{1600}} = 178.125

The probability that the mean amount of credit card debt in a sample of 1600 such households will be within $300 of the population mean is roughly

This probability is the pvalue of Z when X = 1600 + 300 = 1900 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 1600 - 300 = 1300. So

X = 1900

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

By the Central Limit Theorem

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{1900 - 1600}{178.125}

Z = 1.68

Z = 1.68 has a pvalue of 0.9535.

X = 1300

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{1300 - 1600}{178.125}

Z = -1.68

Z = -1.68 has a pvalue of 0.0465.

0.9535 - 0.0465 = 0.907.

The probability that the mean amount of credit card debt in a sample of 1600 such households will be within $300 of the population mean is roughly 0.907 = 90.7%.

7 0
2 years ago
If the function f(x)=mx+b has an inverse function, which statement must be true
skelet666 [1.2K]
Im pretty sure its
m=/0 because when m is 0 then f(x) does not depend on the value of x.
Hope this helped!
7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Judy’s brother Sam has a collection of 96, but what are the 10 way Sam can divide his comic books equal groups
Ierofanga [76]
He can divide by 2,3,4,6,8,12,16,24,32, and 48 but
8 0
1 year ago
It is claimed that 55% of marriages in the state of California end in divorce within the first 15 years. A large study was start
kykrilka [37]

Answer:

0.0045 = 0.45% probability that less than two of them ended in a divorce

Step-by-step explanation:

For each marriage, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it ended in divorce, or it did not. The probability of a marriage ending in divorce is independent of any other marriage. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

55% of marriages in the state of California end in divorce within the first 15 years.

This means that p = 0.55

Suppose 10 marriages are randomly selected.

This means that n = 10

What is the probability that less than two of them ended in a divorce?

This is

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.55)^{0}.(0.45)^{10} = 0.0003

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.55)^{1}.(0.45)^{9} = 0.0042

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0003 + 0.0042 = 0.0045

0.0045 = 0.45% probability that less than two of them ended in a divorce

8 0
1 year ago
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