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lapo4ka [179]
1 year ago
9

Malika just got hired by Amazon to work in upper management. She currently lives in South Carolina, and has to move to Californi

a for the job. Which of the following would be a good economic reason for her to move her personal belongings on her own rather than hiring someone else?
a. Malika is in better physical shape than ever.
b. The bids from moving companies are a bit lower than expected Malika's hiring bonus from Amazon was higher than she expected.
c. Malika's job starts in one month, so she will have one month without work. Therefore, the opportunity cost of moving herself is low during this month
Business
1 answer:
zzz [600]1 year ago
4 0

Answer: Malika's job starts in one month, so she will have one month without work. Therefore, the opportunity cost of moving herself is low during this month.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Malika just got hired by Amazon to work in upper management and that she currently lives in South Carolina, and has to move to California for the job.

A good economic reason for her to move her personal belongings on her own rather than hiring someone else is Malika's job starts in one month, so she will have one month without work. Therefore, the opportunity cost of moving herself is low during this month.

Since her job will start in a month, that means that she can use the available time she has to move her personal belongings. Assuming, she has something else to do or she'll be busy and will be hard for her to move it on her own, then it'll be logical to request for someone to help her move it but in this case, she can move it herself as the opportunity cost is low.

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A well-known industrial firm has issued $1,000 bonds that carry a 4% coupon interest rate paid semiannually. The bonds mature 20
Flauer [41]

Answer:

5.59%

Explanation:

$1,000 bonds carrying a 4% coupon rate, semiannual coupon $20, matures in 20 years

if you purchase the bonds at $715, the nominal annual rate of return = coupon payments / bond price = ($20 + $20) / $715 = $40 / $715 = 5.59%

The nominal annual rate of return is calculated by dividing the revenue generated by an investment by the cost of the investment.

8 0
1 year ago
Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
2 years ago
When contemplating stopping distances, the three critical factors to be considered are
Naddika [18.5K]
C perception, reaction, braking
3 0
1 year ago
Suppose that the investment demand curve in a certain economy is such that investment declines by $130 billion for every 1 perce
AlekseyPX

Answer:

50 billion

Explanation:

Investment declines by $130 billion for every 1 percentage point increase in the real interest rate.

Decline in Investment because of higher real interest rate:

= 2 × 100

= $200 billion

Increase in Investment because of higher expected rate of return:

= 1 × 150

= 150 billion

Total decline in investment:

= -200 + 150

= 50 billion

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8 0
1 year ago
All reports required to can be found online at sec.gov.
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

Twitter's amended S-1 filing

Maximum estimated capital expenditures in 2013:

= $98 million

Explanation:

Twitter's capital expenditures in 2013 can be estimated by subtracting the  long-term or non-current assets of 2012 from 2013.

The 2013 long-term assets (Property and equipment, net) are worth $284,024,000

The 2012 long-term assets (Property and equipment, net) are worth  $185,574,000

The capital expenditure in 2013 =       $98,450,000

The implication is that Twitter added to (or increased) its property and equipment by $98,450,000, which represent new capital expenditures in 2013.

Twitter filed SEC Form 1-A (S-1) with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) when it was seeking exemption for registration requirements for its public offerings as an "emerging growth company,"  as  it is "allowed by the federal securities laws to elect to comply with certain reduced public company reporting requirements for future filings."

8 0
1 year ago
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