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Lelechka [254]
1 year ago
14

Which one of the following is least apt to help convince managers to work in the best interest of the stockholders? Assume there

are no golden parachute
a. Stock option plans
b. Threat of a company takeover
c. Threat of a proxy fight
d. Increasing managers' base salaries
Business
1 answer:
topjm [15]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

not sure guessing ccccccc but what do u there

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Which of the following is NOT a principle of ORM? A ) Make risk decisions at the right level. B ) Anticipate and manage risk by
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is option D) Eliminate risk through application of ORM( which stands for operational risk management ).

Explanation:

Operational risk management can be defined as the continuous cyclical process which consists of risk decision, implementation of risk controls, risk assessment and risk decision making, which would help in mitigation, avoidance and acceptance of risk.

The four principle included in this are -

1) Accepting risk only when the benefits out weights the cost.

2) Anticipating and managing risk by proper planning.

3) Making right decisions at right time and at right level.

4) Anticipate no unnecessary risk.

8 0
2 years ago
Siyed, an economics student, believes that a beer sold by one particular shack on the beach is completely different from an iden
Ghella [55]

Answer:

E) while beer is homogeneous, the product is differentiated among the sellers.

Explanation: The beers are quite identical but each seller differentiates it

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Marlin Corporation reported pretax book income of $1,020,000. During the current year, the net reserve for warranties increased
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

Marlin's current income tax expense is $238,140.

Explanation:

Using the US current corporate tax rate of 21%, Marlin's current income tax expense or benefit can be determined by taking into consideration the effects of other revenue and expenses items on the pretax income to obtain taxable income as as follows:

<u>Particulars                                                    Amount ($)   </u>

Pretax book income                                     1,020,000

Increase in net reserve for warranties            29,000

Amount of depreciation exceeded                102,000

Dividends received deduction                      <u>  (17,000)  </u>

Taxable income                                             1,134,000

Tax expense (21% * $1,134,000)              <u>     (238,140)  </u>

Income after tax                                         <u>    895,860   </u>

Therefore, Marlin's current income tax expense is $238,140.

Note:

Marlin's current income tax expense is obtained as follows:

Tax expense = Tax rate * Taxable income = 21% * $1,134,000 = $238,140.

5 0
2 years ago
Mainstream economic theorizing sees work as a lousy activity that workers tolerate in order to earn income. One way that work is
Mice21 [21]

Answer:

the correct answer is "opportunity cost".

the opportunity cost here means the cost of the next best opportunity lost because of spending time at work, this could be 8 hours, 10 hours at work, etc.

the underline point here is that when someone works for, lets say, 8 hours, he or she could have done something else that they enjoy and brings value to them and their family.

but since they are working, they can not engage in that activity. because of this, we call it the opportunity cost! simple right?

Explanation:

6 0
1 year ago
g Handal Corporation uses activity-based costing to compute product margins. Overhead costs have already been allocated to the c
nordsb [41]

Answer:

Overhead Cost - S1 =  $30201

Explanation:

To assign Overhead costs to S1, we first need to calculate the Overhead Absorption rate for Machining and Order filling.

The Overhead Absorption rate for Machining is calculated by dividing the Machining Overheads by the number of Machine hours to calculate $ Overhead per Machine Hour.

  • Total Machining Hours = 11500 + 3600 = 15100
  • Machining = $11325 / 15100 Hours = $0.75 / Machine Hour

Now we do the same calculation for Order Filling Overheads and divide them by Number of Orders.

  • Total Number of Orders = 270 + 1240 = 1510
  • Order Filling = 26274 / 1510 = $17.4 per order

Now we allocate the Overheads to S1 on the basis of Machine Hours and Number of orders relating to S1.

  • S1 Machine Hours = 11500
  • S1 Orders = 1240
  • S1 Overheads = 0.75 × 11500 + 17.4 × 1240 = $30201
8 0
2 years ago
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