Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Given:
- Coupon rate = 9%, because it pays the coupon semiannually, so
=> Coupon payment = 1000*9%/2 = 45
- Current market rate, YMT= 10%
So the current value of bond is:
C(1- (1+r)^(-n)/r + F/(
<=>45(1 - (1+0,1)^(-7/0.1)) + 1000(1+0,1)^7
<=> C = $951
So she will buy the bonds at the offered price 943.22 because it is smaller than $951
Answer:
1.3 million Impaired asset is the determined amount
Explanation:
Asset impaired as the estimated fair value cash flows is lower than book value
Impairment loss = Fair value - Book value
= 3.0 million - 4.3 million
= 1.3 million Impaired asset
An impaired asset is an asset that has a market value less than the value which was disclosed on the organisation balance sheet. When an asset is said to be impaired, it will need to be written down on the company's balance sheet to its current market value.
#16 is B because I know I’ve had that problem before
Answer:
The answer is: Total DPMO of the overall process is = 4,733.33
Explanation:
To calculate the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) we use the following formula:
DPMO = (D/(U*O))*1,000,000
- Defects = D
- Unit = U
- Opportunity to have a defect = O
We are given the following data:
<u>Service A:</u> <u>Service B:</u>
D = 10 D = 17
U = 500 U = 1,000
O = 15 O = 5
DPMO Service A = [10 / (500 x 15)] x 1,000,000 = 1,333.33
DPMO Service B = [17 / (1,000 x 5)] x 1,000,000 = 3,400
Total DPMO = 4,733.33
Answer:
a debt of $ 27,000 is left in the cash account = -27,000
Explanation:
because when you add all the nos the debts become <em>negative numbers </em>
and when we add them we get a debt of 27,000 which is equal to -27,000
