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2 years ago

If f(x)=sinx−1/cos2x, then limx→π2f(x) is equivalent to which of the following?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Harrizon [31]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given g(x) = sin(x)-1/cos2(x), we are to find the limit if the function g(x) as g(x) tends to π/2

Substituting π/2 into the function

lim x-->π/2 sin(x)-1/cos 2(x)

= sin(π/2) - 1/cos(2)(π/2)

= 1 - 1/cosπ

= 1- 1/-1

= 1 -(-1)

= 1+1

= 2

Hence the limit of the function h(x) = sin(x)-1/cos2(x) as x--> π/2 is 2

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