Answer:
A credit to Cash of $299
Explanation:
Journal Entry Debit Credit
Merchandise inventory $62
Delivery charges $46
Office supplies $30
Miscellaneous expenses $51
Cash over and short
$100
Cash $299
Cash to be reimbursed = Minimum cash balance required - Cash balance left
Cash to be reimbursed = $500 - $201
Cash to be reimbursed = $299
Answer:
Not change
Explanation:
In the long run we expect firms to earn zero profits. With competitive markets for both inputs and output, and with constant returns to scale, a doubling of all inputs would lead to twice as much output, twice as much revenue, and twice as much cost.
Answer:
$1.2 per mile
Explanation:
Computation of the variable cost per mile using the high-low method
Using this formula
Variable cost per mile = (Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost)/(Highest activity - Lowest activity)
Let plug in the
Variable cost per mile= (14,721 - 13,503)/(8,510 - 7,495)
Variable cost per mile= 1,218/1,015
Variable cost per mile=$1.2 per mile
Therefore the Variable cost per mile will be $1.2 per mile.
Answer:
Order size = 200 units
Number of order = 5 times
Explanation:
<em>The number of order per year will be equal to the Annual demand divided by the EOQ.</em>
<em>No of orders = Annual Demand / EOQ</em>
Economic order quantity (EOQ)
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is the order size that minimizes the balance of ordering cost and holding cost. At the EOQ, the carrying cost is equal to the holding cost.
It is computed using he formulae below
EOQ = √(2× Co× D)/Ch
Ch- Carrying cost per unit per annum- $1
Co- Ordering cost per order -20
EOQ =√(2× 20× 1000)/1
= 200 units
Order size = 200 units
Number of order = 1000/200 = 5 times
Answer:
$21.859
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period
1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1
= 1.20 ÷ 1.12
= 1.071
2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2
= $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254
= $1.148
3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405
= $1.127
4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574
= $1.107
5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762
= $1.088
6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) × (1.762)
= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233
= $16.318
Now
Share’s Current Value is
= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318
= $21.859
We simply applied the above formula
