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BARSIC [14]
2 years ago
5

On March 1st, Mr. Smithe signed up for a fitness program at Fit Co. and paid $960 for the entire program upfront. The program in

cludes a total of 12 sessions and two sessions are delivered each month. How much revenue from Mr. Smithe should Fit Co. recognize at the end of March
Business
1 answer:
vichka [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Revenue - March = $160

Explanation:

The accrual principle in accounting states that the revenues for a period should match the expenses for that particular period and any revenue or expense should be recorded in the period to which it relates to. This means that the upfront fee received by Fit Co. is a liability and should not be recorded as a revenue until it is earned. So, by providing two sessions in the month of March, Fit Co. has earned revenue for 2 sessions out of the twelve. Thus, at the end of March, Fit Co. should record a revenue of,

Revenue - march = 960 * 2/12 = $160

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Sal purchased a used toaster at a yard sale. The seller told Sal that although the toaster was more than 10 years old, she had n
inessss [21]

Answer:

<em><u>The manufacturer of the toaster would argue from the point of view of the warranty offered for the toaster.</u></em> In most electronic products, the manufacturer offers warranty ranging from 1 year to 5 years.

<em>For the toaster to have worked for more than 20 years without any problem shows that it was a good product. And, the warranty must have expired hence the need not to be held responsible for whatever happened to it.</em>

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
The HVAC engineer for a company that constructed one of the world’s tallest buildings requested that $500,000 be spent on softwa
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

5.16%

Explanation:

PW=0 equation.

0 = -500,000 + 10,000(P/A, i*,10) + 700,000(P/F, i*,10)

Now let use the estimation procedure to determine i* mean while All income will be regarded as a single F in year 10 so that the P/F factor can be used.

Therefore The P/F factor is selected because most of the cash flow ($700,000) which already fits this factor and errors.

P =$500,000, n =10,

F =10(10,000) + 700,000 = $800,000. .

Now we can state that 500,000 =

800,000(P/F,i,10)(P/F,i,10) = 0.625

Roughly estimated i* is between 4% and 5%.

Let use 5% as the first trial because this approximate rate for the P/F factor is lower than the true value when the time value of money is considered.

At i* =5%, the IRR equation is

0 = -500,000 + 10,000(P/A,5%,10) + 700,000(P/F,5%,10)0 < $6946

The result is positive, indicating that the return is more than 5%.

Let Try i*= 6%.

0 = -500,000 + 10,000(P/A,6%,10) + 700,000(P/F,6%,10)0 > $-35,519

Since the interest rate of 6% is too high, linearly interpolate between 5% and 6%

i* = 5.00 + 6946/(6946 + 35519) = 5.16%

Therefore the RATE OF RETURN is 5.16%

8 0
2 years ago
How were the earliest benefits of the Industrial Revolution distributed between factory owners and workers?
qaws [65]
The answer is <span>Factory owners benefited greatly, while conditions for workers were poor.

During the Industrial Revolution, capitalists were focused on getting more profit. They actually have poor management with worker benefits. Workers work long hours and receive insufficient pay for all their work. Their condition moved them to form Unions and held strikes for decent salary and benefits.
</span>
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Elena has been absent without excuse twice during the past month. Her manager calls her into his office and issues a written​ wa
Leona [35]

Answer:

Basic corrective action

Explanation:

Basic corrective action is undertaken by management to its staff or employees in order to eliminate further recurrence of non-conformity with organization procedures, rules and policies. The written warning to Elena is an example of basic corrective action in order for her to stop absenteeism from work.

3 0
2 years ago
Upton Umbrellas has a cost of equity of 11.6 percent, the YTM on the company's bonds is 6.2 percent, and the tax rate is 40 perc
matrenka [14]

Answer:

WACC = 9.86%

so correct option is d. 9.86%

Explanation:

given data

cost of equity = 11.6 percent

bonds = 6.2 percent

bonds sell = 103.2 percent

debt book value = $408,000

total assets book value= $952,000

market to book ratio = 2.74 times

to find out

what is the company's WACC

solution

we get here first Total book value of equity that is express as

Total book value of equity = Total assets book value - Total debt book value   .................1

Total book value of equity  = 952000 - 408000

Total book value of equity = $544000

and here market to book ratio  is

market to book ratio  = \frac{market\ value}{book\ value}

so market value of equity = (2.74 × 544000) = $1490560

and  

After tax cost of debt = 6.2 (1 - tax rate)

After tax cost of debt = 6.2 (1 - 0.4)

After tax cost of debt = 3.72%

and

Market value of Debt = 408000 × 103.2%  

Market value of Debt   = $421056

so

Total market value = $1490560 + $421056

Total market value is =$1911616

and  

WACC will be

WACC = Respective costs × Respective weights

WACC =  \frac{1490560}{1911616}11.6 + 3.72\frac{421056}{1911616}

WACC = 9.86%

so correct option is d. 9.86%

4 0
2 years ago
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