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artcher [175]
2 years ago
7

Charlotte's Crochet Shoppe has 11,300 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $65 and a rate of return of 11.

21 percent. The company also has 340 bonds outstanding, with a par value of $1,000 per bond. The pretax cost of debt is 5.93 percent and the bonds sell for 94.2 percent of par. What is the firm's WACC if the tax rate is 39 percent
Business
1 answer:
Lunna [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Please see below

Explanation:

Given that;

Common stock outstanding = 11,300

Price per share = $65

Number of bonds outstanding = 340

Bonds sell for $94.2 percent of par

Par value per bond = $1,000

Market value of common stock = Common stock outstanding × Price per share

= 11,300 × $65

= $734,500

Market value of debt:

Number of bonds outstanding × [Percent of par × Par value]

= 340 × [0.942 × $1,000]

= 340 × $942

= $320,280

Total market value:

= Market value of common stock + Market value of debt

= $734,500 + $320,280

= $1,054,780

WACC:

= [(Market value of debt ÷ Total market value) × Pretax cost of debt × (1 - Tax rate)] + [(Market value of common stock ÷ Total market value) × Rate of return]

= [($320,280 ÷ $1,054,780) × 0.00593 × (1 - 0.39)] + [($734,500 ÷ $1,054,780) × 0.1121]

= [(0.303646258) × 0.0036173 + [0.00780612545]

= 0.0010983796 + 0.00780612545

= 0.008904505

= 0.89%

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Answer:

Option D             

Explanation:

In simple words, moral hazard refers to the situation when an individual do not act with full responsibility due to the fact that any loss from their behavior will be borne by some third party.

Thus, by assessing the employees before employment by a test will help to decide the employer if the individual is worthy of the job or not. Thus, efficient employees will be selected and less mistakes will occur.    

5 0
2 years ago
Assume the spot rate for the British pound currently is $1.5701/£. Also assume the one-year forward rate is $1.5574/£. A risk-fr
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

D) 4.04 percent

Explanation:

Spot rate is £1 = $1.5701

Forward exchange rate after 1 year is £1 = $1.5574

Risk free rate in US = 3.2 %

Forward rate = {Spot rate * (1 + risk free rate in US)} / (1 + risk free rate in UK)

1.5574 = {1.5701 * ( 1 + 0.032)} / (1 + risk free rate in UK)

(1 + risk free rate in UK) = (1.5701 * 1.032) / 1.5574

Risk free rate in UK = (1.62034 / 1.5574) - 1

Risk free rate in UK = 1.0404 - 1

Risk free rate in UK = 0.0404

Risk free rate in UK = 4.04%

7 0
2 years ago
How has the great recession of 2008dash–2009 affected marketers in terms of consumer​ attitudes?
Black_prince [1.1K]
The answer is: <span>Consumers are showing an enthusiasm for frugality(cautious in spending)
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5 0
2 years ago
5) Scanlin, Inc. is considering a project that will result in initial aftertax cash savings of $2.1 million at the end of the fi
rewona [7]

Answer:

The PV of future cash flow is $22,925,764, therefore the company should take on the project

Explanation:

In order to know if the company should take on the project we have to calculate the PV of future cash flow as follows:

PV of future cash flow=<u>    D1    </u>

                                        RE-g

To calculate this formula we requre to calculate the WACC and the discount rate as follows:

WACC=(1.00/1.80×0.11)+0+(0.80/1.80×0.046)

WACC=0.0611+0+0.02044

WACC=0.081556

WACC=8.16%

After having calculated the WACC we can calculate the project discount rate as follows:

project discount rate=WACC + Additional risk factor

=8.16%+3%

=11.16%

Therefore, PV of future cash flow= <u>$2,100,000</u>

                                                            0.1116-0.02

PV of future cash flow= <u>$2,100,000</u>

                                            0.0916

PV of future cash flow=$22,925,764

The PV of future cash flow is $22,925,764, therefore the company should take on the project

4 0
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the answer is D. Thinking more logically

6 0
2 years ago
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