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Alecsey [184]
1 year ago
8

Here are data on two companies. The T-bill rate is 4.8% and the market risk premium is 5.9%. Company $1 Discount Store Everythin

g $5 Forecast return 12 % 11 % Standard deviation of returns 12 % 14 % Beta 1.6 1.0 What would be the fair return for each company, according to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)? (Round your answers to 2 decimal place
Business
1 answer:
tiny-mole [99]1 year ago
8 0

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the fair return for each company is shown below:

Fair Return = Risk free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium

= 4.8 + 1.6 × 5.9  

= 14.24%

Now  

Everything $5 is

= 4.8 + 1 × 5.9

= 10.7%

Hence, the same should be considered

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A corporation has 10,000 bonds outstanding with a 6% annual coupon rate, 8 years to maturity, a $1,000 face value, and a $1,100
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (1,100)           1           (1,100)           1             (1,100)

1-8        47.4             5.3349  252.87      7.0197      332.73

 8       1,000             0.4665    465.5      0.7894       789.4

                                  NPV      (381.63)              NPV 22.13                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 3       + 22.13/22.13 + 381.63   x (10 – 3)

Kd =  3       + 22.13/403.76 x 7

Kd = 3        + 0.38

Kd = 3.38%  

Explanation:

Cost of debt is calculated based on internal rate of return formula. In year 0, we will consider the current market price of the bond as cashflow. In year 1 to 8, we will consider the after-tax coupon as the cashflow. The after-tax coupon is calculated as R(1 - T).  R is 6% x $1,000 = $60 and tax is 21%. Thus, we have $60(1  - 0.21) = $47.4. then we will discount the cashflows for  8 years so as to obtain the internal rate of return. The internal rate of return represents cost of debt.

3 0
2 years ago
Given a stock index with a value of $1,200, an anticipated dividend of $45, and a risk-free rate of 6%, what should be the value
kramer

Answer: $1,227

Explanation:

The value of the futures contract should be calculated by the formula;

= Stock Index Value * ( 1 + risk free rate ) - dividends

= 1,200 * ( 1 + 0.06) - 45

= $1,227

8 0
2 years ago
Stephanie bought a package of pencils for $1.75 and some erasers that cost $0.25 each. She paid a total of $4.25 for these items
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

the dogs

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
If the absolute value of the own price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, then demand is said to be:
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

A. elastic.

Explanation:

Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price.

Demand is elastic when a change in price leads to a change in quantity demanded. The coefficient of elasticity for elastic demand is usually greater than one.

Demand is inelastic when a change in price has no effect on quantity demanded.

The absolute value of the coefficient of elasticity for inelastic demand is usually less than 1.

Demand is unitary when a change in price leads to an equal proportional change in quantity demanded.

The absolute value of the coefficient of elasticity for unitary demand is usually equal to one .

I hope my answer helps you.

8 0
2 years ago
1. Assume that Walmart can borrow at yield of 5% in USD (5-year, zero coupon debt, issued in the US), before issuance costs. Alt
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

it wold be cheap because walmart is cheap and by the way does walmart have toilet paper yet i havent gone so i dont know

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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