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klasskru [66]
2 years ago
9

Describe the first step when factoring any polynomial. Why is this the first step? Explain.

Mathematics
2 answers:
shtirl [24]2 years ago
4 0

Answer with explanation:

→Consider a Polynomial

   \rightarrow ax^n+bx^{n-1}+cx^{n-2}+...........+d

→We will use rational root theorem to find out the factors of the polynomial.

  \rightarrow ax^n+bx^{n-1}+cx^{n-2}+...........+d\\\\\rightarrow a(x^n+\frac{bx^{n-1}}{a} +\frac{cx^{n-1}}{a}+..........+\frac{d}{a})

→Factors of d are

        =\pm 1 , .....\pm d\\\\ \text{Factors of a are}=\pm 1,.....\pm a\\\\ \pm\frac{d}{a}  

⇒Now,substitute these integers that is factors into Polynomial expression to find which expression is equal to Zero.These integers will be factor of Polynomial expression.

For example

 f(x)=x²-3 x+2

By rational root theorem ,roots of the polynomial can be , -1,1,2,-2.

f(1)=1²-3×1+2

   =1-3+2

   =0

f(2)=2²-3×2+2

   =4-6+2

  =0

So, 1 and 2 are root of the polynomial expression.

seropon [69]2 years ago
3 0
Step 1: If there is a common factor, factor out the GCF. Step 2<span>: Identify the number of terms: (i) If polynomial has two terms, convert polynomial into difference of two squares or sum of two cubes or difference of two cubes.</span>
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GrogVix [38]

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y = a(x - h)^2 + k

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y = a(x - 16.5)^2 + 5

when x = 0 y = 0  so

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which gives a = -0.018365

So our function for the flight path is

y = -0.018365(x - 16.5)^2 + 5     Answer



7 0
1 year ago
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James and his family spend a morning picking peaches. They fill several bags. This line plot shows the weight of each bag.
Mariulka [41]

Answer:

1 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to figure out the lightest and the heaviest bad. The lightest bag is 4 1/4 and the heaviest is 5 3/4. Now to subtract, you can't subtract this as a mixed fraction so turn each fraction into an improper fraction by multiplying the whole number by the denominator then adding the numerator to the product of the whole number multiplied  by the denominator (if you didn't know numerator is the top and the denominator is the bottom. To find out 4 1/4 as an improper fraction follow these steps (4*4+1=17) so 4 1/4=17/4. The process is the same for 5 3/4 (5*4+3=23) so   5 3/4= 23/4. Now to subtract, you subtract the numerator but not the denominator. You subtract because the question asks how many more and that means to subtract 23/4-17/4= 6/4. Last step is to turn this back into a mixed fraction do that by dividing the numerator by the denominator, 6 divided by 4 equals 1.5 and turn the decimal into a fraction 1 is a whole number so you don't  change that but the 5 behind the decimal needs to be changed so now 1.5= 1 5/10 and last step is simplify 1 1/2. Hope this helped :).

6 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Triangle J K L is shown. Angle K L J is a right angle. The length of hypotenuse K J is 10.9 centimeters and the length of L J is
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

sin−1(StartFraction 8.9 Over 10.9 EndFraction) = x

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given triangle JKL;

Hypotenuse KJ = 10.9

Length LJ is the opposite = 8.9cm

The angle LKJ is the angle opposite to side KJ = x

Using the SOH CAH TOA Identity;

sin theta = opp/hyp

sin LKJ = LJ/KJ

Sinx = 8.9/10.9

x = arcsin(8.9/10.9)

sin−1(StartFraction 8.9 Over 10.9 EndFraction) = x

7 0
2 years ago
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In triangle $DEF,$ $\angle D = 30^\circ,$ $\angle F = 60^\circ,$ and $EF = 6.$ Find $DE + DF.$ [asy] unitsize(2 cm); pair D, E,
sergey [27]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer to this question is 12+6sqrt3.

This is because of the 30, 60, and 90 degree rule. The rule states that the hypotenuse is equal to twice the length of the shorter leg, which is the side across from the 30 degree angle.

Using the rule you now know that DF is 12. Then use the Pythagorean Theorem to find the length of DE. 12^2=144, and 6^2=36. 144-36=108.

The square root of 108 simplified=6sqrt3.

Then you add them together and get 12+6sqrt3.

5 0
2 years ago
In a poker hand, John has a very strong hand and bets 5 dollars. The probability that Mary has a better hand is .04. If Mary had
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

When Mary raises the probability that she has a better hand is 0.273

Step-by-step explanation:

In the poker game it is given that the probability that Mary has a better hand than John is 0.04.

Let the event that Mary has a better hand than John be A.

Let the event that that Mary raises the stakes be B.

It is also given that if Mary has a better hand than John then she would raise with a probability of 0.9

Therefore p(B | A) = 0.9

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Therefore p(B | A') = 0.1

Given that Mary raises the probability that she has a better hand is given by

p(A | B)

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= 0.273

So when Mary raises the probability that she has a better hand is 0.273

3 0
2 years ago
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