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navik [9.2K]
2 years ago
9

A mobile phone carrier charges an extra fee if a customer uses more than 500 minutes each month. Tom has already used 230 minute

s this month. Which inequality can be used to determine how many more minutes Tom can use this month without going over the 500-minute limit?
Mathematics
2 answers:
prohojiy [21]2 years ago
7 0
X will be the amount of minutes Tom has left.<span>
</span>
tigry1 [53]2 years ago
3 0
500<span> ≤ 230+x


x will be the amount of minutes Tom has left.</span>
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A probability calculator is required on this problem; answer to six decimal places. Suppose we will spin the wheel pictured 400
KiRa [710]

Answer:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=400, p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=400*0.2=80 \geq 10

n(1-p)=400*(1-0.2)=320 \geq 10

So we see that we satisfy the conditions and then we can apply the approximation.

If we appply the approximation the new mean and standard deviation are:

E(X)=np=400*0.2=80

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{400*0.2(1-0.2)}=8

So then we can approximate the random variable as X \sim N(\mu = 80, \sigma = 8)

And we want this probability:

P(90< X< 110)

We can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{x -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

8 0
2 years ago
*50 PTS, WILL MARK BRAINLIEST*
Pavel [41]

Part A)

Total stores = 362 + 66 = 428

362 / 428 = 0.845 = 84.5% = 85%

66 / 428 = 0.154 = 15.4% = 15%

Yes this is consistent with the percentages shown in the first table.

Part B)

Total stores : 197 +115 = 312

197 / 312 = 0.631 = 63.1% = 63%

115 / 312 = 0.368 = 36.8% = 37%

The percentage for current stores is less than what is shown in the first table, so this would not be consistent.

Part C )

Percentage of new stores for the Northeast = 60 / 310 = 19%

The percentage of new stores for The Midwest and Northeast are below 25%, but the percentage of new stores in the South is above 25%, so the additional training wouldn't be required for the South, but should be required for the other two areas.

6 0
3 years ago
Which quadratic equation is equivalent to (x2 – 1)2 – 11(x2 – 1) + 24 = 0? u2 – 11u + 24 = 0 where u = (x2 – 1) (u2)2 – 11(u2) +
Vinvika [58]
<span><span>u2</span> – 11u + 24 = 0 where u = (x2 – 1) the first awnser, a.</span>
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The price of a train ticket consists of an initial fee plus a constant fee per stop.
murzikaleks [220]

Answer:

Initial Fee is $2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Stops  Price (dollars)

3         6.50

7         12.50

11         18.50

Also Given:

The price of a train ticket consists of an initial fee plus a constant fee per stop.

So let the Cost of initial fee be 'x'.

Also Let the Cost of Constant fee be 'y'.

Now Equation can framed as;

Price (P) = x + (y\times \textrm{Number of Stops})

Now According to table;

Number of stops = 3

Price = 6.50

So equation can be framed as;

x+3y =6.50 \ \ \ \ equation \ 1

Also According to table;

Number of stops = 7

Price = 12.50

So equation can be framed as;

x+7y =12.50 \ \ \ \ equation \ 2

Now Subtracting equation 1 from equation 2 we get;

(x+7y)-(x+3y) =12.50-6.50\\\\x+7y-x-3y=6\\\\4y =6\\\\y= \frac{6}{4}=\$1.5

Substituting the value of y in equation 1 we get;

x+3\times1.5=6.50\\\\x+4.5=6.50\\\\x =6.50-4.5 = \$2

Hence Initial Fee is $2.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The indicated function y1(x) is a solution of the given differential equation. Use reduction of order or formula (5) in Section
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

y2 = C1xe^(4x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that y1 = e^(4x) is a solution to the differential equation

y'' - 8y' + 16y = 0

We want to find the second solution y2 of the equation using the method of reduction of order.

Let

y2 = uy1

Because y2 is a solution to the differential equation, it satisfies

y2'' - 8y2' + 16y2 = 0

y2 = ue^(4x)

y2' = u'e^(4x) + 4ue^(4x)

y2'' = u''e^(4x) + 4u'e^(4x) + 4u'e^(4x) + 16ue^(4x)

= u''e^(4x) + 8u'e^(4x) + 16ue^(4x)

Using these,

y2'' - 8y2' + 16y2 =

[u''e^(4x) + 8u'e^(4x) + 16ue^(4x)] - 8[u'e^(4x) + 4ue^(4x)] + 16ue^(4x) = 0

u''e^(4x) = 0

Let w = u', then w' = u''

w'e^(4x) = 0

w' = 0

Integrating this, we have

w = C1

But w = u'

u' = C1

Integrating again, we have

u = C1x

But y2 = ue^(4x)

y2 = C1xe^(4x)

And this is the second solution

5 0
2 years ago
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