Answer: a= 1.21
Step-by-step explanation:
Note: This is a compound interest problem
Step 1
The value of the antique after one year is:
100% + 10% of the purchase price
= 110% of 200
=110/100 of 200
=1.10 × 200
Step 2
The value after two years is:
110% of the value after one year
=110% of (1.10 × 200)
=110/100 of (1.10× 200)
=1.10×(1.10×200)
=1.21×200
Step 3
Expressing the above solutionin the form 200a:
= 200× a = 200 × 1.21
|a=1.21
Thanks
Answer:
a) Cancellations are independent and similar to arrivals.
b) 22.31% probability that no cancellations will occur on a particular Wednesday
Step-by-step explanation:
In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

In which
x is the number of sucesses
e = 2.71828 is the Euler number
is the mean in the given time interval.
Mean rate of 1.5 per day on a typical Wednesday.
This means that 
(a) Justify the use of the Poisson model.
Each wednesday is independent of each other, and each wednesday has the same mean number of cancellations.
So the answer is:
Cancellations are independent and similar to arrivals.
(b) What is the probability that no cancellations will occur on a particular Wednesday
This is P(X = 0).


22.31% probability that no cancellations will occur on a particular Wednesday
Answer: 16 pumpkins.
Step-by-step explanation:
He can divide these future expenses by separating future expenses. there will be 100 dollars left.
48.25 x .20 = 9.65........................