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Trava [24]
2 years ago
12

"compare intel's actual and pro forma (as if) ratios of intangible assets to long-lived tangible assets in 2012. use r&d cap

italization to compute this ratio. which of the two values is more relevant?"
Business
1 answer:
kobusy [5.1K]2 years ago
4 0

Since Intel has a history of effectively transforming R&D investment into income, the pro-forma version of the ration seems to be of more significant. A company starting, for instance, would be unalike: its track record would be much poorer and probabilities are that the criteria set in place would not be as rough as Intel’s. Therefore, it appears that the significance hinge on the kind of business: if future benefit is more of a doubt, then R&D should be expensed. The contradictory is true if benefit is almost certain. Intel also has the advantage of being very vibrant with its R&D objectives and having exact, measurable standards. They note obviously what the funds are apportioned to and what the end outcomes should be of the growth.

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Emma, a 70-year-old widow living alone, has a fixed income of $11,000 per year from social security. If the local option homeste
Ilya [14]

Answer:

Homestead exemption of $25,000, which is a standard deduction

Explanation:

Homestead exemption is the regime which is legal in order to protect the home values of the residents from the creditors, property taxes and the situations arise from the death of the spouse.

In this case, Emma, is a widow and only has a fixed income of $11,000 per year, therefore, the exemption of the homestead allows a standard deduction of $25,000.

3 0
2 years ago
A bank efficiency ratio is the ratio of a bank's expenses to its revenue, expressed as a percentage. If a bank has \$222$222doll
Ann [662]

Answer:

$296 million

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Expenses of the bank = $222 million

Efficiency ratio of the bank = 75%

Now,

The Efficiency ratio is given using the formula as:

Efficiency ratio = \frac{\textup{Expenses}}{\textup{Revenue}}

thus,

Revenue = \frac{\textup{Expenses}}{\textup{Efficiency ratio}}

on substituting the respective values, we get

Revenue = \frac{\$\textup{222 million}}{\textup{75}\%}

or

Revenue = \frac{\$\textup{222 million}}{\textup{0.75}}

or

Revenue = $296 million

Hence, the revenue for the bank is $296 million

7 0
2 years ago
Bill is a yacht broker in the southeastern United States. For years he has had difficulty selling large yachts locally because t
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

.D.complementary products

Explanation:

A complementary good is a product whose usage is dependent on the availability of another. Complementary goods are, therefore, goods that are used together.  For example, A and B will be complimentary goods if the use of A will require the use of B.

Yachts and docks are complementary products because a yacht will require a dock as the base of its operation.  Without a dock, yacht operations will be almost impossible. Bill is not making good sales on big yachts because potential customers cannot find sufficient docking space. Other examples of complementary goods are car and petrol,  printers and ink cartridges, guns and bullets, and DVD players and DVD disks.

5 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2019, Shields, Inc., issued $800,000 of 9%, 20-year bonds for $879,172, yielding a market (yield) rate of 8%. Semi
Ghella [55]

Answer:

cash 879,172 debit

   bonds payble   800,000 credit

   premium on BP    79,127 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 35,166.84 debit

premium on BP      833.16 debit

cash                    36,000 credit

--to record first interest payment--

Interest expense 35133.52 debit

premium on BP          866.48 debit

cash                       36,000 credit

--to record second interest payment--

<em><u>Financial Statement effect:</u></em>

<em><u>Cash flow:</u></em>

financing:

proceed from bonds 879,172

interest paid                 72,000

<em><u>Net income</u></em>

interest expense 35,133.52 + 35,166.84 = 70.250,36

<em><u>Balance sheet</u></em>

Bonds payable   800,000

Premium on Bonds 77,471

Explanation:

The price will be the discounted future coupon and maturity payment at market rate

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 36,000.000 (800,000 x 9% x 1/2)

time 40 ( 20 years x 2)

rate 0.04 (8% x 1/2)

36000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-40} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $712,539.8598

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   800,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.04

\frac{800000}{(1 + 0.04)^{40} } = PV  

PV   166,631.24

PV c $712,539.8598

PV m  $166,631.2357

Total $879,171.0955

The interest expense will be the carrying value times market rate

the cash outlay will be the same for each period:

principal x coupon rate x half-year as payment are semiannual.

800,000 x 0.09 x 1/2 = 36,000

The difference between each one will determinate the amortization onthe premium

6 0
2 years ago
Simonne is developing a program. She names a variable %due, but then recognizes that this name violates a variable naming conven
umka21 [38]

Answer:

Variables names cannot include a percent sign (%).

Explanation:

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2 years ago
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