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LuckyWell [14K]
2 years ago
10

Ryan always skims through his lesson before a test. What is he doing by skimming?

Business
2 answers:
Mars2501 [29]2 years ago
7 0
D. Reading everything very quickly
Roman55 [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D. reading everything very quickly (plato)

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Which of the following statements is correct? Review Later Strategic buyers are asset managers that are trying to time the purch
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

Strategic buyers are asset managers that are trying to time the purchase or sale of a business.

Financial buyers are institutions that provide capital and are not operators.

Explanation:

Strategic buyers are the buyers which aim to buy the company through acquisition, or M&A in order to gain more power in the industry, basically expanding their horizons, they are competitors, or the suppliers in the supply chain, or the customers of the product, they tend to buy such companies in order to decrease their share of cost.

Financial buyers are the one which basically provides finance to the company.

In simple terms these buyers just invest in the companies and have short term or long term goals from this investment, as long as these goals in the form of expected return are fulfilled they keep the investment, as soon when they discover its profitable to sell it further and have a capital gain they do so.

6 0
2 years ago
The Maurer Company has a long-term debt ratio of .60 and a current ratio of 1.20. Current liabilities are $940, sales are $5,120
garri49 [273]

Answer:

The amount of the firm's net fixed assets is $4,321

Explanation:

Profit margin = Net income/ Sales

Net income = Profit margin x Sales = 9.30% x $5,120 = $476.16

ROE = Net Income/Equity

Equity = Net Income/ROE = $476.16/16.90% = $2,818

Long-term debt ratio = Long-term debt/Equity

Long-term debt = Long-term debt ratio x Equity = 0.6 x $2,818 = $1,691

Basing on accounting equation:

Total asset =Current Liabilities + Long-term debt + Equity = $940 + $1,691 + $2,818 = $5,449

Current ratio = Current asset/Current Liabilities

Current asset = Current ratio x Current Liabilities = 1.2 x $940 = $1,128

Fixed assets = Total asset - Current asset = $5,449 - $1,128 = $4,321

5 0
2 years ago
Henson company applies overhead on the basis of 120% of direct labor cost. job no. 190 is charged with $120,000 of direct materi
Marizza181 [45]
Total manufacturing costs=direct material+direct labor+manufacturing overhead

Calculate direct labor
Let direct labor be x
120%=1.2
1.2x=180000
Divide both sides by 1.2
X=180,000÷1.2
X=150,000 direct labor

Total manufacturing costs=
120,000+150,000+180,000
=450,000...answer

Hope it helps!
5 0
2 years ago
A company has the opportunity to take over a redevelopment project in an industrial area of a city. No immediate investment is r
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

1-a. The are multiple IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. Rate of return = 7.58%

2. This is NOT a good investment because the NPV is negative.

Explanation:

Note: The estimated Net Cash Flow for the 4th year in the data is erroneously stated in the question as a positive value instead as a negative value since it is a cost.

The estimated net cash flows correctly before answering the question as follows:

Year End             Net Cash Flow

1                             $500,000

2                            $300,000

3                            $100,000

4                          –$2,400,000

5                            $150,000

6                            $200,000

7                            $250,000

8                            $300,000

9                            $350,000

10                           $400,000

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

1-a. Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the tabulation of the PW versus the interest rate.

From Part 1-a of the attached excel file, it can be observed that multiple IRRs exist. This is because there two IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the calculation of total future value of income when e = 8% per year.

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost not income. Therefore,

From attached excel, we have:

Total Future Value of Income = $3,661,508.81

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost (not income) of $2,400,000. Therefore, it future value is not calculated. However, the present of the cost can be calculated as follows:

Present value of cost in year 4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + e)^4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + 8%)^4 = $1,764,071.65

The rate of return can now be calculated as follows:

Rate of return = ((Total Future Value of Income / Present value of cost in year 4)^(1/Number of period)) - 1 = (($3,661,508.81 / $1,764,071.65)^(1/10)) - 1 = 0.0758, or 7.58%

2. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.

Note: See Part 2 of the attached excel file for the calculation of net present value (NPV).

From part 2 of the attached excel file, we have:

Net present value = –$21,043.15

Since the net present value is negative, this implies that this is NOT a good investment.

Download xlsx
5 0
2 years ago
MJ LTD is expected to grow at various rates over the next five years. The company just paid a $1.00 dividend. The company expect
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

$21.859

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period

1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1

                  = 1.20 ÷ 1.12

                 = 1.071

2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2

                   = $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254

                  = $1.148

3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3

                    = $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405

                     = $1.127

4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4

                    = $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574

                     = $1.107

5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5

                     = $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762

                     = $1.088

6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]

= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) ×  (1.762)

= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233

= $16.318

Now

Share’s Current Value is

= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318

= $21.859

We simply applied the above formula

5 0
2 years ago
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