Answer:
The most you can pay for the pitcher is $17.32
Explanation:
A mark up is a percentage that is always applied on the cost to come up at a required gain over cost. The cost is always taken to be 100% when apply a mark up on cost.
If the mark up is of 27% and cost is 100% then a selling price of 22 will be equal to cost + markup.
Let cost be x.
Selling price = Cost + Mark up
22 = 100% * x + 27% * x
22 = 1x + 0.27x
22 = 1.27 x
22/1.27 = x
x = $17.3228 rounded off to $17.32
Answer:
The correct answer is B) Buyer Intentions Method also known as <em>Consumers' Buyer Plan.</em>
Explanation:
This plan involves approaching customers to elicit information from them about their likelihood to make purchases during a particular period. It is most effective when the number of customers is small relative to the ability of the business to reach out to them.
A sales forecast based on this method has several demerits such as:
- The customers may change their minds anytime without consultation with the business
- It is an uneconomical way to do a forecast when the client base is large
- Predicting sales over the long-run using this method is statistically impossible
It has a few merits in that the information is obtained first hand from the consumers or buyer and the real intentions of the buyers at the time of collecting information is known.
Cheers!
Answer:
In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22.
In a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft.
Explanation:
In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22 because based on the information given we were told that the customer original order resulted in one $22 fee which means that 1 multiply by $22 fee will give us $22 (1*22) which is the amount owe by the customer.
Secondly in a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make the customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft reason been that we were been told that the reordering resulted in four $22 fee which means that four multiply by $22 fee will give us $88 (4*22).
Answer:
True
Explanation:Using specific position titles in ICS helps to describe the responsibilities of the position.
Answer:
The explanation is given as follows.
Explanation:
<u>Task 1: </u>
<u>The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.</u>
When the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves , both reserves and debt increase by $100 , therefore increase in debt as in any balance sheet , the total value of accounts on the left hand should be equal to the right hand , so when there is increase in reserves , there will be increase in debt.
<u>Task 2:</u>
<u>It specifies a minimum leverage ratio for all banks
</u>
leverage ratio initially = total assets / capital = 1750 / 125 = 14
leverage ratio new value = total assets / capital = 1850 / 125 = 14.8 ( the assets increase by $100 with increase in reserves)
<u>Task 3</u>
<u>Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.</u>
Capital requirement are there to ensure that bank have enough capital to repay the depositors and debtors and if a bank holds a higher percent of risky assets , capital requirements will be higher so that the bank remains solvent hence option a is right answer.
