Question

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1-1/2 parts rice. If 1-1/2 parts of beans are used how much rice should be used

Answer 1

Answer:

$2\frac{1}{4}$  part of rice should be used.

Step-by-step explanation:

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to $1\frac{1}{2}$ part rice.

If $1\frac{1}{2}$ parts of beans used,

rice should be = $1\frac{1}{2}$ × $1\frac{1}{2}$

                         = $\frac{3}{2}$ × $\frac{3}{2}$  

                         = $\frac{9}{4}$                              

                         = $2\frac{1}{4}$ part or 2.25 parts rice

$2\frac{1}{4}$  part of rice should be used.

Answer 2

I think the answer is 2 parts rice. If you added half to the beans, do it to the rice too.