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vichka [17]
1 year ago
8

Given the following data: Selling price per unit $ 2.00 Variable production cost per unit $ 0.30 Fixed production cost $ 3,000 S

ales commission per unit $ 0.20 Fixed selling expenses $ 1,500 The break-even point in dollars is: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.) Garrison 16e Rechecks 2017-08-04
Business
2 answers:
Irina-Kira [14]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

Break-even point in dollars is $6,000

Explanation:

To compute break-even point in dollars, the formula would be

Break-even in dollars = <em>Fixed Cost / Contribution Margin Ratio</em>

<em />

<em>Step 1. Compute the unit contribution</em>

<em />

Contribution margin =  Selling price - (variable production expense + variable selling & administrative expenses)

  • CM = 2 - (0.30 + 0.20)
  • CM = 2 - 0.50
  • <em>CM = 1.50</em>

<em>Step 2. Compute contribution margin ratio </em>

CMR = unit contribution margin / selling price

  • CMR = 1.50 / 2
  • CMR = 75%

<em>Step 3. Compute break-even in dollars</em>

<em>Break-even in dollars = fixed cost / contribution margin ratio</em>

<em>BES = ($3,000 + $1,500) / 75%</em>

<em>BES = $4,500 / 75%</em>

<em>BES = $6,000</em>

Shkiper50 [21]1 year ago
3 0

Answer:

Break Even Point in Dollars = $6,000

Explanation:

Break Even Point in Dollars = \frac{Total \: Fixed \: Cost}{Contribution \: Per \: Unit} \times Selling price per unit.

Total Fixed Cost = Fixed Production cost + Fixed Selling Expenses

Fixed Production Cost = $3,000

Fixed Selling Expense = $1,500

Total Fixed cost = $3,000  +$1,500 = $4,500

Contribution per unit = Selling price - Variable Cost per unit

Selling Price Per Unit = $2.00

Variable Cost Per Unit = Variable Production cost + Sales commission

Variable Production cost = $0.30

Sales Commission Cost = $0.20

Variable Cost per unit = $0.30 + $0.20 = $0.50

Contribution per unit = $2.00 - $0.50 = $1.50

Break-even point = \frac{4,500}{1.5} \times 2 = 6,000

Break Even Point in Dollars = $6,000

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max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

A) A bond's current yield must always be either equal to its yield to maturity or between its yield to maturity and its coupon rate.

Explanation:

the yield to maturity = current yield +/- capital gains yield

current yield = yield to maturity +/- capital gains yield

the capital gains yield is positive or negative depending if the bond was sold at a premium or at a discount which results in a coupon rate being either higher or lower than the yield to maturity.

so the current yield must always be within a range between yield to maturity and coupon rate

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1 year ago
Jennifer’s Boutique has 2,100 shares outstanding at a market price per share of $26. Sally’s has 3,000 shares outstanding at a m
goldenfox [79]

Answer:

c. $57,100

Explanation:

The computation of the value of Jennifer’s Boutique to Sally is shown below:

= (Number of shares outstanding ×  market price per share) + (incremental value of the acquisition)

= 2,100 shares ×$26 + $2,500

= $54,600 + $2,500

= $57,100

We simply find out the market value and then added it to the incremental value of the acquisition

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

4 0
2 years ago
Employees who have difficulty performing efficiently on the job often have poor _____ skills, are confused about their prioritie
sergeinik [125]

Answer: The correct answer is "Organizational".

Explanation: Employees who have difficulty performing efficiently on the job often have poor <u>organizational</u> skills, are confused about their priorities (what is most important), and may be slow in making decisions.

Organizational skills allow us to distinguish which are our priorities, short, medium and long term objectives to be met and the steps to follow to fulfill these. Once focused on that, decision-making aimed at meeting these objectives tends to be much faster, which as a result demonstrates more efficient work.

7 0
1 year ago
Huxley Building Supplies' last free cash flow was $1.75 million. Its free cash flow growth rate is expected to be constant at 25
Kipish [7]

Answer:

Ans. The best estimate of the current intrinsic stock price is $36.51

Explanation:

Hi, first, we have to determine the cash flows for year 1 and 2 (when the stock grows at 25%) and then, the terminal value (using the constant growth rate of 6%). Then we have to bring to present value all the cash flows (terminal value included) and since the terminal value is an amount of money expressed in dollars of year 2, we have to bring it to present value, discounted at the WACC.

Normally, we need to use the rate of return of the equity but in this case this is not possible due to the lack of information. What we can do is to find the value of the company´s equity, which means that If we bring to present value tha cash flows of year 1 and 2 and the terminal value (using thte WACC as a discount rate) and add the short term invesments and substract the debt of the company, we can find the equity´s value and divide it by the outstanding shares, therefore obtaining a good aproximation to the intrinsic value of the stock. It all goes like this.

Note. Notice that 1.75 millions were the last cash flow so we need to find the cash flow for year 1 (CF1)

(PV)CF1=\frac{1.75(1+0.25)}{(1+0.12)^{1} } =1.9531

(PV)CF2=\frac{1.75(1+0.25)^{2} }{(1+0.12)^{2} } =1.9463

(P.V)Terminal Value=\frac{1.75(1+0.25)^{2}(1+0.06) }{(0.12-0.06)} *(\frac{1}{(1+0.12)^{2} } )=38.51

Where (PV) means present value.

Now, let´s do the following operation

EquityValue=(PV)allCashFlows+ShortTermInvest-Debt

EquityValue=(1.9531+1.9463+38.51)+5-7=36.51

Then, the equity´s value is $36.51 millions.

Now, the intrinsic value of the stock is the value of its equity divided by the number of outstanding shares.

Intrinsic ValueStock=\frac{36.51}{1} =36.51

So, the intrinsic value of Huxley Building Supplies' is $36.51

Best of luck.

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2 years ago
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ANTONII [103]

Answer:

The dollar variance is -$100.

The percent variance is -20%.

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We calculate Dollar Variance as : Actual Amount - Budgeted Income

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Next, we calculate percent variance as :

Percent variance = \frac{Dollar Variance}{Budgeted Income} *100

Plugging the values in we get,

Percent Variance = \frac{-100}{500} *100

Percent Variance = -20%



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