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galben [10]
2 years ago
15

Dunbar Hardware, a national hardware chain, is considering purchasing a smaller chain, Eastern Hardware. Dunbar's analysts proje

ct that the merger will result in incremental free flows and interest tax savings with a combined present value of $72.52 million, and they have determined that the appropriate discount rate for valuing Eastern is 16%. Eastern has 4 million shares outstanding and no debt. Eastern's current price is $16.25. What is the maximum price per share that Dunbar should offer?
Business
1 answer:
SpyIntel [72]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Duncan can offer up to 18.13 per share.

Explanation:

The merger will generate a <em><u>present value</u></em> of $72.52 million

This is the final number, as we are given with the present value of the cash flow.

We can accept a project until their NPV is zero.

NPV = present value of the cashflow - investment

  0   =  72.52 millions                         - investment

investment = 72.52

so it will pay for the shares at most 72.52 million

there are 4 million share outstanding

We will divide the present value of the merger by the shares outstanding to get the price per share:

72,520,000 / 4,000,000 = 18,13‬

Duncan can offer up to 18.13 per share and still achieve their goal of a 16% return

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2 years ago
Provenzano Corporation manufactures two products: Product B56Z and Product D32N. The company is considering implementing an acti
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Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Activity Cost Pool Activity Measure Total Cost Total Activity

Machining Machine-hours $330,000 15,000 MHs

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Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

<u>Machinning:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 330,000 / 15,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $22 per machine-hour

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6 0
2 years ago
Privo Co. purchases a machine that cost $15,000. Privo estimates a 5-year life with no salvage value. The first three years of d
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

Double-declining balance method

Explanation:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 4

= 20%

Now the rate is double So, 40%

In year 1, the original cost is $15,000, so the depreciation is $6,000 after applying the 50% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the depreciation is ($15,000 - $6,000) × 40% = $3,600

And, in year 3, the depreciation is ($15,000 - $6,000 - $3,600) × 40% = $2,160

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2 years ago
Thomas Textiles Corporation began November with a budget for 60,000 hours of production in the Weaving Department. The departmen
netineya [11]

Answer:

a) $12,500 unfavorable

b) 0

Explanation:

variable factory overhead controllable variance = actual variable overhead expense - (standard variable overhead per unit x standard number of units)

actual variable overhead expense = $725,000

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Fixed factory overhead volume variance = actual fixed overhead - standard fixed overhead = $262,500 - $262,500 = 0

Fixed overhead was exactly the same as the standard or budgeted overhead.

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