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nexus9112 [7]
1 year ago
7

A company uses the departmental overhead rate method. Total overhead costs are $5,000,000. Of this total, the machining departme

nt is assigned overhead costs of $4,000,000 and the assembly department is allocated the remainder. The machining department uses machine hours as their allocation base and has 80,000 machine hours. The assembly department uses direct labor hours as their allocation base and has 50,000 direct labor hours. Calculate the overhead rate for the machining department.
Business
1 answer:
monitta1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per machine hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The machining department uses machine hours as its allocation base and has 80,000 machine hours. The machining department is assigned overhead costs of $4,000,000.

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base= 4000000/80000= $50 per machine hour

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Dream Threads Company sells hand-sewn shirts for $40 per shirt. It incurs monthly fixed costs of $7000. The contribution margin
mylen [45]

Answer:

350 units

Explanation:

The break even point shows the earnings that the company has to generate to be able to cover all the expenses. The formula to calculate the break even point is:

Break even point= Fixed costs / contribution margin

Break even point= $7,000/0.50

Break even point= $14,000

Now, to determine the break even point in units you have to divide $14,000 by the sales price per unit:

$14,000/$40= 350 units

According to this, the break even point in units is 350.

8 0
2 years ago
According to the overall staffing organizations model, hr and staffing strategy are driven by ______________.
alexandr1967 [171]
The staffing organizations model are driven by staffing stradegy!!!
love sent from the district of columbia! <3333
8 0
2 years ago
The owner of a valuable painting hired professional movers to transport it to an auction house when she decided to sell it. As t
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

No. She suffered no physical impact

Explanation:

Negligent infliction of emotional distress occurs when a person engages in an act that can cause  severe emotional distress to another .

The plaintiff must be able to prove that the act was done willfully or provide an evidence that

  • It was a result of defendant's negligence
  • Plaintiff suffered emotional distress a direct  result of the action
  • The action was foreseeable by the defendant
  • The plaintiff was in a danger zone

before he can win a claim.

The question here is how to prove emotional stress? The plaintiff must be able to show a verifiable physical injury that is linked to the emotional distressed suffered.

7 0
2 years ago
Gore Global is considering the two mutually exclusive projects below. The cash flows from the projects are summarized below.
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator  

Flying Car

Cash flow in year 0 = -$200,000

Cash flow in year 1 = 50,000

Cash flow in year 2 = 50,000

Cash flow in year 3 =80,000

Cash flow in year 4 =100,000

IRR = 13%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.  

7 0
2 years ago
Bartlett Company's target capital structure is 40% debt, 15% preferred, and 45% common equity. The after-tax cost of debt is 6.0
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

WACC is 9.26%

Explanation:

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of common share x Weightage of common share ) + ( Cost of Preferred share x Weightage of Preferred share ) + ( Cost of debt x Weightage of debt )

Cost of debt is already given as after tax cost of debt.

WACC = ( 12.75% x 45% ) + ( 7.5% x 15% ) + ( 6% x 40% )

WACC = 5.7375% + 1.125% + 2.4% = 9.2625 % = 9.26%

4 0
2 years ago
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