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malfutka [58]
2 years ago
13

Yates Co. uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. At the end of the period, Yate's unadjusted trial balance shows an

accounts receivable balance of $10,000; allowance for doubtful accounts balance of $400 (credit); and sales of $500,000. Based on history, Yates estimates that bad debts will be 1% of sales. The entry to record estimated bad debts will include a debit to bad debts expense in the amount of:
a. $5,845b. $4,980c. $4,115d. $4,300e. $4,450
Business
2 answers:
Zarrin [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Debit to bad debts expense in the amount of $5,000

Explanation:

The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:

= Credit sales × estimated percentage given

= $500,000 × 1%

= $5,000

The journal entries are  also shown below; for better understanding

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $5,000

  To Allowance for doubtful debts  $5,000

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

The other information which is given in the question is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

Cerrena [4.2K]2 years ago
4 0

The entry to record estimated bad debts will include a debit to bad debts expense in the amount of $5,000. Therefore, the correct answer is $5,000

<h2>Further Explanation: </h2>

Bad expenses account Dr $5,000

Allowance for doubtful account $5,000

To record the bad expense

To calculate the bad expense, you should multiply credit sales by the percentage of uncontrollable estimates. This can be expressed as:

Credit sales x percentage of uncontrollable estimates

From the given question:

  • Credit sales = $500,000
  • Percentage of the uncontrollable given = 1%

If you substitute the value, then you have:

$500,000 x 1%

= $5,000.

When a customer collects goods on credit from a company and doesn’t have the financial capacity to pay back, it will result in bad debt expenses or doubtful account expenses.

Bad debts expenses are accounts receivable (balance of money) that a customer or company is unable to pay due to financial problems

In other words, bad debt expenses are unfortunate losses that a firm suffers because its customers were not able to pay back the goods or products they took on credits.

Bad debts can be calculated in two ways and these include:

  1. Direct write off method
  2. Allowance method

LEARN MORE:

  • Ana Co. uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. At the end of the period, Ana's unadjusted trial balance  brainly.com/question/13928272
  • Flash Co. uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. At the end of 2010, Flash Co.'s unadjusted trial balance shows an accounts receivable balance of brainly.com/question/13602614

KEYWORDS:

  • account receivable
  • allowance for doubtful account
  • yates co.
  • cash sales
  • credit sales
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My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

$371

Explanation:

The computation of additional interest during the fourth year is shown below:

but before that we need to do the following calculations

Amount = Principal × (1 + (rate of interest ÷ (1 × 100)))^(1 × number of years)

A = $5,000 × (1 + (6.7% ÷ (1 × 100)))^(1 × 3)

= $5,000 × (1 + (6.7 ÷ 100))^(1 × 3)

= $5,000 × (1 + 0.067)^3

= $5,000 × (1.067)^3

= 5000 × 1.214

= $6,070

Now, Interest gained after 3 years on the amount of Principal is

= $6,070 - $5,000

= $1,070

Here Evelyn issued interest which is half that is earned at the end of the 3rd year

Sp,

Half of the interest gained will be

= $1,070 ÷ 2

= $535

Now,

The new Principal amount for 4th year is

= $6,070 - $535

= $5,535

So, the final amount in the fourth year is

A = P × (1 + (r ÷ n))^(nt)

= $5,535 × (1 + 0.067 ÷ 1 ]^(1 × 1)

= $5,535 × 1.067

= $5.905.845

Hence the additional interest in the fourth year is

= $5,905.845 - $5,535

= $370.845

or

= $371

Therefore for computing the additional interest during the fourth year we simply applied the above formula.

8 0
2 years ago
Ma Barker Company has a job-order costing system and uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply man
seropon [69]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (A) $42.00

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

The established rate  is given as = 100,000/40,000

= $2.5 per hour

Thus

The cost of the job is shown is shown below:

The direct material = $5,000

The direct labor = $2400

Then

The manufacturing overheard is = 400 * 2.5 = $1,000

So,

The total cost is = $5,000 + $2400 + $1000 = $8,400

To get our unit cost,

Unit cost = $8400/200 = $42.00

It is important to know that, the  number of labor hours used in jobs = Total labor cost/Rate per hour

=2,400/6 = 400 hours

8 0
2 years ago
Columbia Corporation produces a single product. The company's variable costing income statement for November appears below: Colu
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

Value of closing Inventory under absorption costing = $56,610

Explanation:

Provided sales for the month = $902,000 a the rate of $22 per unit.

That means sales in units = $902,000/ $22 = 41,000 units.

Provided opening stock of finished goods = 8,770 units

Production for the month of November = 35,560 units

Closing inventory = Opening + Manufactured - Sales

                              = 8,770 + 35,560 - 41,000 = 3,330

Under absorption costing only manufacturing overheads are added to the cost of goods, operating expenses like selling & administrative do not form part of that.

Variable cost of goods sold do not include operating expenses, as variable selling expenses are provided separately.

Therefore cost of goods sold per unit = $574,000/41,000 = $14 per unit.

Variable selling expenses will not form part of value of closing inventory under absorption costing.

Fixed manufacturing expenses will be considered fully with the production quantity of 35,560 units as no production capacity has been provided.

Manufacturing fixed cost per unit = $106,680/35,560 = $3 per unit

Value of closing Inventory = Cost of goods sold per unit + Fixed cost per unit allocated

= ($14 X 3,330) + ($3 X 3,330) = $56,610

8 0
2 years ago
A beneficiary acquired stock from a decedent. The stock's fair market value at the date of the decedent's death was $500,000. Th
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

Beneficiary recognized gain is $510000.

Explanation:

The amount paid by the decedent for the stock = $280000

The market value of the stock at the time of death = $500000

The selling price or the amount received by the beneficiary by the sell of stock = $510000

Since the recognized gain is calculated by subtracting the amount paid by the person to buy the stock from the amount that he receives from the sale of stock. But in this case, the beneficiary pays zero for the stock but gets all the money after selling.

Beneficiary recognized gain = amount received from the sell – the amount paid by the beneficiary.

= $510000 – 0

= $510000

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2 years ago
Barry is a single, 40-year-old software engineer earning $190,000 a year and is not covered by a pension plan at work. How much
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Answer:

Barry cannot contribute any amount to Roth IRA

Explanation:

For a single/ unmarried individual to be able to contribute to Roth IRA plan, his Adjustable Gross Income (AGI) should range between $117,000 and $132,000. Since Barry's annual income is $190,000, which is higher than the maximum AGI required for a single to be able to contribute to Roth IRA, he cannot contribute to Roth IRA.

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