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lora16 [44]
1 year ago
13

Ma Barker Company has a job-order costing system and uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply man

ufacturing overhead to jobs. Manufacturing overhead cost and direct labor hours were estimated at $100,000 and 40,000 hours, respectively, for the year. In July, Job #334 was completed at a cost of $5,000 in direct materials and $2,400 in direct labor. The labor rate is $6 per hour. If Job #334 contained 200 units, the unit product cost on the completed job cost sheet would be:___________.
a) $42.00
b) $39.50
c) $41.90
d) $37.00
Business
1 answer:
seropon [69]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option (A) $42.00

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

The established rate  is given as = 100,000/40,000

= $2.5 per hour

Thus

The cost of the job is shown is shown below:

The direct material = $5,000

The direct labor = $2400

Then

The manufacturing overheard is = 400 * 2.5 = $1,000

So,

The total cost is = $5,000 + $2400 + $1000 = $8,400

To get our unit cost,

Unit cost = $8400/200 = $42.00

It is important to know that, the  number of labor hours used in jobs = Total labor cost/Rate per hour

=2,400/6 = 400 hours

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A rug manufacturer has decided to use 7 compatible colors in her rugs. however, in weaving a rug, only 5 spindles can be used. i
zubka84 [21]
The number of available colors is n = 7.
The number of colors that can be selected at a time among the 7 colors is r = 5.

This means that the number of selections of 5 colors from 7 colors at a time is ₇C₅.
By definition,
_{7} C_{5} = \frac{7!}{2!5!} = \frac{7.6.5!}{2.1.5!} = \frac{7.6}{2}=21

Answer: The number of color groupings is 21.


3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is not part of the flow of events in variance analysis: Multiple Choice
IrinaK [193]

Answer: a.Working to ensure that all variances are favorable.

Explanation:

Variance Analysis is an analysis of the difference between planned and actual numbers. For example of $599 was budgeted for bills but only $500 was paid, $99 would be the Variance.

Summing Variances up gives a picture of performance for a particular period of time in relation to if one has OVER -PERFORMED or UNDER-PERFORMED

The following are steps in Effective Variance Analysis Management

1. Identifying questions and their explanations

2. Preparing standard cost performance reports

3. Taking corrective and strategic actions

4. Computing and analyzing variances.

Option A is not included therefore it is the correct option.

If you require any further clarification do react or comment.

3 0
1 year ago
The brand resonance model Select one: a. traces the value creation process for brands b. describes how to create intense, active
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

The answer is b) describe how to create intense and active loyalty relationships with customers.

Explanation:

The resonance model refers to the nature of the consumer's relationship with the brand, and the degree of synchronization that the consumer has with the brand. It is about answering questions that serve to define as a brand/company, questions that deepen issues of how the company is perceived by the target audience and will be the differential point that will generate the correlation of mutual interests with the brand and the consumer.

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2 years ago
The following information is available for two different types of businesses for the Year 1 accounting year. Hopkins CPAs is a s
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

Please see attached detailed explanation.

Explanation:

Please find attached detailed preparation of income statement, balance sheet and cash flow statement for the above.

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2 years ago
On October 1, Year 1, Jason Company paid $7,200 to lease office space for one year beginning immediately. What is the amount of
victus00 [196]

Answer:

The amount of rent expense that will be reported on the Year 1 income statement is $1,800 .

The cash outflow for rent that would be reported on the Year 1 statement of cash flows is $5,400.

Explanation:

Though the amount paid was paid on October 1, Year 1 it will only be expensed from October to December for year 1.

The duration of the payment is 12 months, hence  

Monthly amortization = $7,200/12 = $600

Rent expense for year 1 = $600 × 3 = $1,800

The ending balance in the prepaid rent account will be  

= $7,200 - $1,800

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This will be the cash outflow for rent that would be reported on the Year 1 statement of cash flows.

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