Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is option B) Recession.
Explanation:
The reserve bank of India ( RBI ) has been lowering its repo rate ( which is the rate at which it lends to banks ) to counter the problem of recession in the economy. The aim here is to apply the expansionary monetary policy, in which the money supply in the economy would be increased by cutting down the interest rate, which will lead to decrease in cost of borrowing and increase in investment . The government would also increase its spending.
Answer:
experiment.
Explanation:
Experiment is a scientific investigation to test a hypothesis. It determines the relationship of the independent variable to the other variables in a controlled setup. It is essential to keep it control so that cause-effect relationship explained the outcome when other factors are manipulated. Experiment must prove its validity and reliability by obtaining the same results in a repeatable procedure.
Answer: $17.84
Explanation:
The following can be reduced.fromcthe question:
Total Assets = $848,000
Total Debt = $402,000
Total equity = Total asset - total debt
= $848,000 - 402,000
= $446,000
Outstanding Shares = 25,000
Value per shares:
= $446,000/25,000
= $17.84
Value of shares repurchased =$40,000
Number of shares repurchased:
= $40,000/17.84
= 2,242.15
= 2242 approximately
Number of shares outstanding:
= 25,000 - 2,242
= 22,758
Value of shares outstanding:
= $446,000 - 40,000
= $406,000
Price of Shares = Value of shares/number of shares
= $406,000 / 22,758
= $17.84
Answer:
D) An acid-test ratio = 1.0 tells us that without adequate inventory turnover, this company may represent a higher risk. Peak Performance's acid-test ratio shows that the firm maintains $1.00 in current assets for every $1.00 in current liabilities.
Explanation:
The acid test ratio is the ratio which depicts the liquidity of the company. It excludes the inventory, prepaid expenses, etc for calculating it
The formula to compute is shown below:
Acid test ratio is
= Quick assets ÷ current liabilities
Therefore according to the given situation, the correct option is d.
Answer:
The correct answer is option (b) unfavorable
Explanation:
From the question given
We solve for the factory overhead cost variance to know whether it is favorable or unfavorable.
Solution
The Total cost variance for manufacturing = Standard Cost at Actual Volume - Actual costs
Thus,
= 196,500-202,100
= $5,600 unfavorable
Therefore the overhead cost of variance is = $5,600 which is unfavorable
Correct option is b.