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2 years ago

Which of the following is the converse of the statement, "If I eat too much,

Mathematics

1 answer:

AleksAgata [21]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-By-Step-Explanation:

Converse means opposite, but still the same.

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A retail company has 50 large stores located in different areas throughout a state. A researcher

svetlana [45]

Answer:

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2 years ago

Photon Lighting Company determines that the supply and demand functions for its most popular lamp are as follows: S(p) = 400 - 4

Alinara [238K]

S(p)=D(p)
400-4p+0.00002p4=2,800-0.0012p3
Solve for p
P=96.24

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2 years ago

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The town of Worman Grove collected 9,645 blue pens and 18, 836 black pens for a school supplies drive. Their goal is to have 30,

Sonbull [250]

Answer:

1519 pens

Step-by-step explanation:

add 9,645 to 18,836 and then subtract that number from 30,000

6 0

2 years ago

A mattress store sold 1,330 mattresses in one year. If 30% of the mattresses sold were king size mattresses, how many king size

kodGreya [7K]

The total number of mattresses that are sold in a year = 1,330

Percentage of King size mattresses sold = 30% = 30/100 = 0.3

Next, we have to calculate the actual number sold by using the formula given below:

Number of king size mattresses sold = Total mattresses sold in a year * percentage of king size mattresses sold

Number of King Size mattresses sold = 1,330*0.3 = 399

Number of king size mattresses sold = 399

3 0

2 years ago

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For quality control purposes, a company that manufactures sim chips for cell/smart phones routinely takes samples from its pro

ololo11 [35]

Answer:

There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each chip, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are imperfect, or they are not.

This means that we can solve this problem using binomial distribution probability concepts.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem

A success is a chip being imperfect. Suppose the average number of imperfections per 1000 sim chips is 3. So $\pi = \frac{3}{1000} = 0.003$ .

What is the probability that a sample this size (1000 chips) has 2 imperfections?

The sample has 1000 chips, wo $n = 1000$

We want P(X = 2).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{1000,2}.(0.003)^{2}.(0.997)^{998} = 0.2242$

There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.

7 0

2 years ago