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Aloiza [94]
1 year ago
13

The stock price of Bravo Corp. is currently $100. The stock price a year from now will be either $160 or $60 with equal probabil

ities. The interest rate at which investors invest in riskless assets is 6%. Using the binomial OPM, the value of a put option with an exercise price of $135 and an expiration date 1 year from now should be worth __________ today.
$34.09

$37.50

$38.21

$45.45

I know the answer should be 38.21.
Business
1 answer:
slavikrds [6]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

correct option is $38.21

Explanation:

given data

stock price = $100

stock price =  either $160 or $60

interest rate = 6%

exercise price = $135

solution

we get here Hedge ratio that is express as

Hedge ratio = (Pay off in case price appreciates - Pay off in case price depreciates) ÷ (Appreciated price - Depreciated price)     ..................1

put here value we get

Hedge ratio = ( Max [$135 - $160, $0] - Max[$135 - $60, $0]) ÷ ($160 - $60)

Hedge ratio = \frac{$0 - $75}{$100}

Hedge ratio = - 0.75

so here Price of Put option is

Price of Put option = -Hedge ratio × {Appreciated price ÷ (1 + risk free rate) - Present stock price}

Price of Put option =  -(-0.75)  × \frac{160}{1+0.06} - 100

Price of Put option = $38.21

so here correct option is $38.21

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On December 31 of the current year, the unadjusted trial balance of a company using the percent of receivables method to estimat
Sauron [17]

Answer:

  • What amount should be debited to Bad Debts Expense, assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                                    $ 1,941  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 1,941

Explanation:

Initial Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable                            $ 97,400

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 981

What amount should be debited to Bad Debts Expense,    

assuming 3% of outstanding accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                                        $ 1,941  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 1,941

FINAL Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable                                $ 97,400  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 2,922

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary  to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible.

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets.

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

5 0
1 year ago
It’s important in business today for all firms to work to cut out the middleman. Intermediaries represent costs that can be save
vivado [14]

Answer:

Yes: Middlemen represents costs

No: Middlemen could have exclusive access to customers

No: Cutting out middlemen will lead to unemployment on the long run

Explanation:

Why it is true that cutting off middlemen could reduce business costs in the sense that they (middlemen) usually buy from manufacturers and charge additional costs before selling to final users, it should also be known that sometimes these middlemen bridge the gap between supply and demand by taking the products from where they are produced to where the customers are found.

A second consideration is that cutting off middlemen will as a result create unemployment for all those middlemen that will be cut off.

8 0
1 year ago
Suppose that we want the number of male employees in each department making more than $30,000, rather than all employees (as in
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

The query may still be specified in SQL by using a nested query as follows (not all

implementations may support this type of query):

SELECT DNAME, COUNT (*)

FROM DEPARTMENT, EMPLOYEE

WHERE DNUMBER=DNO AND SEX='M' AND DNO IN ( SELECT DNO

FROM EMPLOYEE

GROUP BY DNO

HAVING AVG (SALARY) > 30000 )

GROUP BY DNAME;

Explanation:

7 0
1 year ago
Nagel Equipment has a beta of 0.88 and an expected dividend growth rate of 4.00% per year. The T-bill rate is 4.00%, and the T-b
Luda [366]

Answer:

Option (e) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Beta = 0.88

Expected dividend growth rate = 4.00% per year

T-bond rate = 5.25% (The treasury bonds are always the risk free rate)

Average annual future return on the market = 14.75%

Required rate of return:

= Risk free rate + Beta × (Market rate - Risk free rate)

= 5.25 + 0.88 × (14.75 - 5.25)

= 5.25 + 0.88 × 9.5

= 5.25 + 8.36

= 13.61%

7 0
1 year ago
Placker Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours.
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

Total cost= $3,595

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated fixed overehad= $155,000

Estimated variable manufacturing overhead= $3.40 per machine-hour

Estimated machine-hours= 50,000

Job A881:

Total machine-hours 100

Direct materials $645

Direct labor cost $2,300

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (155,000/50,000) + 3.4

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $6.5

Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Total cost= 645 + 2,300 + (6.5*100)

Total cost= $3,595

5 0
1 year ago
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