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2 years ago

The following data are for a series of increasingly extensive flood-control projects.

Business

1 answer:

marissa [1.9K]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

$28,000 and $12,000, respectively

Explanation:

Marginal cost = incremental cost from Plan C to Plan D

= total cost (plan D) - total cost (plan C)

= 72,000 - 44,000 = $28,000

Marginal benefit = incremental benefit from Plan C to Plan D

= total benefit (plan D) - total benefit (plan C)

= 64,000 - 52,000 = $12,000

Therefore marginal cost and benefits for Plan D = $28,000 and $12,000, respectively

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Reese, a calendar-year taxpayer, uses the cash method of accounting for her sole proprietorship. In late December, she received

marin [14]

Answer:

$11,560

$5666.661

Explanation:

Given the following :

Bill received from accountant = $17,000

This year's marginal tax rate = 32%

Next year's marginal tax rate = 37%

After tax return on investment = 11%

After tax cost of bill is paid in December :

Billed amount * this year's tax rate

$17,000 * ( 1 - 0.32)

= $17,000 * 0.68

= $11,560

B) After tax cost of bill was paid in January:

Billed amount * next year's tax rate * PV factor

From the present value factor table;

PV factor (1 years, 11%) = 0.9009

Hence,

$17,000 * 0.37 * 0.9009 = $5666.661

4 0

2 years ago

Playtown Corporation purchased 75 percent of Sandbox Corporation common stock and 40 percent of its preferred stock on January 1

Nesterboy [21]

Answer:

Elimination Journal.

Retained Earnings $210,000 (debit)

Common Stock $ 150,000 (debit)

Investment in Sandbox Corporation $270,000 (credit)

Non-Controlling Interest $90,000 (credit)

Explanation:

When dealing with consolidation of Financial Statements, the Equity and Retained Earning in the Subsidiary has to be eliminated from the records whilst the Investment in Subsidiary and the Non-Controlling Interest in Subsidiary are recognized.

Elimination of the common items in consolidation is done by the use of Pro-forma Journals.

Goodwill or Gain on Bargain Purchase are also recognized on the date of acquisition of subsidiary.

Goodwill is the excess of Purchase Price and Non-Controlling interest over the Net Assets Acquired.While Gain on Bargain Purchase is the excess of Net Assets Acquired over Purchase Price and Non-Controlling interest.

Elimination Journal.

Retained Earnings $210,000 (debit)

Common Stock $ 150,000 (debit)

Investment in Sandbox Corporation $270,000 (credit)

Non-Controlling Interest $90,000 (credit)

8 0

2 years ago

If we assigned three people to work with you on a complex project containing 75 tasks that you were responsible for, how would y

Anni [7]

First of all, I will try to get to know people who were assigned to me. as I will have 75 tasks and equality is very important to me, I will give each person 25 task. if they will have some problems with given task I will try to help them or change their tasks so they can be more comfortable with their work. As a leader, i will do work as well, if my team will have some problems i will listen to them and solve those problems together.

3 0

2 years ago

Suppose it is 1810. what advice would you give tecumseh to help him be more successful in his goals than he actually was?

Mashutka [201]

I would probably urge him to engage in guerrilla warfare to be more successful in his military campaigns against the American troops and to fortify his new town Prophetstown to be better prepared against attack by American forces .

7 0

2 years ago

What is the expected value when a $1 lottery ticket is bought in which the purchaser wins exactly $10 million if the ticket cont

Nadusha1986 [10]

We expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

Explanation:

six winning numbers from = { 1, 2, 3, ....., 50}

So, the probability of winning:

$P(win) = \frac{ no of favorable outcomes}{no of possible outcomes}$

$P(win) = \frac{1}{^5^0C_6} \\\\P (win) = \frac{6! X (50 - 6)!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{6! X 44!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{1}{15,890,700}$

The probability of losing would be:

P(loss) = 1 - P(win)

$P(loss) = 1 - \frac{1}{15,890,700} \\\\P(loss) = \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700}$

According to the question,

When we win, then we gain $10 million and lose the cost of the lottery ticket.

So,

$10,000,000 - 1 = $9,999,999

When we lose, then we lose the cost of the lottery ticket = $1

The expected value is the sum of the product of each possibility x with its probability P(x):

E(x) = ∑ xP(x)

$= 9,999,999 X \frac{1}{15,890,700} + ( -1 ) X \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700} \\\\=- \frac{5,890,700}{15,890,700} \\\\= - \frac{58,907}{158,907} \\\\= - 0.37$

Thus, we expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

7 0

2 years ago