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Anton [14]
1 year ago
13

Winston Clinic is evaluating a project that costs $52, 125 and has expected net cash inflows of $12,000 per year for eight years

. The first inflow occurs one year after the cost outflow, and the project has a cost of capital of 12 percent. What is the project's payback? What is the project's NPV? Its IRR? Its MIRR? Is the project financially acceptable? Explain your answer.
Business
1 answer:
kvv77 [185]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

Payback period (years):  4.23  years

NPV: $6,685  

IRR: 16%

MIRR: 14%

The project is financially acceptable because IRR and MIRR is greater than cost of capital

Explanation:

Payback period is calculating the number of year when cash inflow can cover cash outflow (regardless the present value of cash inflow).

As we can easily estimate, cash inflow in 5 year can cover the investment.

Then payback period = 4 years + 12000/52,125 = 4.23 years

We can use excel to calculate NPV, IRR, MIRR in the formula as below

Net present value of project: NPV=(discounting rate, cash outflow, cash inflow) = (12%, -52125,12000,12000......,12000) = $6,685

Internal rate of return: IRR= (cash outflow, cash inflow) = ( -52125,12000,12000,......,12000) = 16%

Modified internal rate of return: MIRR = (cash outflow, cash inflow, IRR, cost of capital) = (-52125,12000,12000......,12000,16%,12%) = 14%

<em>Please see attachment for more details.</em>

Download xlsx
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Zhou owns a nonrental business with two separate departments. Department A generates net income of $70,000, and Department B gen
Margaret [11]

Answer: $58,000

Explanation:

If Zhou is allowed to treat the departments as components of a single activity then ALL the losses suffered by Department B can be offset against the Income of Department A because they will be treated as a singular business.

Seeing as Department A has a higher income of $70,000 than the loss of Department B of $58,000, all of Department B's loss can therefore be offset by Department A.

8 0
2 years ago
Drag each event to the correct location on the chart.
saul85 [17]

Answer

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Increase- a report in news stating that

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Decrease- a decrease in the price

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4 0
1 year ago
TechPro offers instructional courses in e-commerce website design. The company holds classes in a building that it owns.
myrzilka [38]

Answer:

1. fixed and indirect

2. variable and direct

3. variable and direct

4. fixed and indirect

5. fixed and indirect

6. variable and direct

Explanation:

<u>Fixed and variable costs</u>

A fixed cost is expected to be constant for a short term period whilst a variable cost is expected to vary in direct proportion to the number of units produced in this case it is the individual classes.

Depreciation expense on classroom building and on computers is a fixed cost that is expected to remain constant and the instructor wage varies with the number of classes thus a variable cost.

<u>Direct and Indirect costs</u>

A direct cost can be directly traced to the cost object by observation whist the indirect cost can not be directly traced on a cost object.

The instructors wage is a direct cost, his effort is seen with the success of the classes whist the depreciation expenses are indirect costs.

4 0
2 years ago
“E-Commerce is a boon to small scale enterprises, `entrepreneurs and customers”. Explain.
Mumz [18]

Answer:

SMEs have realised the importance of E-commerce and using it to gain growth and sustainability.

Explanation:

E-commerce has been a revolutionary step for small scale enterprises and customers towards ease of doing business and e- commerce has helped business to grow and expand. It has helped enterprises to increase their revenue, low operational cost and online presence. Customers can buy goods and services just by a click. They prefer e-commerce because everything is accessible online.

6 0
1 year ago
Bonds issued by the Coleman Manufacturing Company have a par value of $1,000, which of
miss Akunina [59]

Answer:

19.05%

Explanation:

the approximate yield to maturity (YTM) formula is:

approximate YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} /  [(FV + PV) / 2]

  • C = coupon payment = $130
  • FV = face value or value at maturity = $1,000
  • PV = present value or current market value = $690
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approximate YTM = {$130 + [($1,000 - $690) / 10]} /  [($1,000 + $690) / 2] = ($130 + $31) / $845 = $161 / $845 = 0.1905 or 19.05%

8 0
1 year ago
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