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vitfil [10]
2 years ago
8

A well insulated 3-m X 4-m X 6-m room initially at 7 degrees C is heated by the radiator of a steam heating system. The radiator

has a volume of 15 L and is filled with superheated vapor at 200 kPa and 200 degrees C. At this moment both the inlet and the exit valves to the radiator are closed. A 120-W fan is used to distribute the air to the room. The pressure of the steam is observed to drop to 100 kPa after 45 min as a result of heat transfer to the room. Assuming constant specific heats for air at room temperature, determine the average termperature of air in 45 min. Assume the air pressure in the room remains constant at 100 kPa.

Business
1 answer:
poizon [28]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The average temperature of air in 45 minutes is 10.74°C

Explanation:

Given

Time t = 45 minutes

Initial Air Temperature, T1 = 7°C

Fan work W = 120W

Radiator Volume = V1 = 15L

Initial Steam Pressure = P1 = 200kPa

Initial Steam Temperature = Ts1 = 200°C

Final Steam Pressure = P2 = 100kPa

The radiator is our system.

We take the system as a close system.

The energy balance is given as follows

-Qout = ∆U

-Qout = m(u2 - u1)

Calculating u2

From steam table (see attachment below)

At P1 and Ts1

P1 = 200kPa, Ts1 = 200°C

u1 = 2654.6KJ/Kg

v1 = 1.08049 m³/Kg

At P2 = 100kPa,  v1 = v2

vf = 0.001043m³,   vg = 1.6941m³/kg    uf = 417.4kj/kg      ufg = 2088.2kj/kg

x2 = (v2 - vf)/(vg - vf)

x2 =  (1.08049 - 0.001043)/(1.6941 - 0.001043)

x2 = 1.079447/1.693057

x2 = 0.63757

u2 = uf + x2ufg

u2 = 417.4 + 0.63757 * 2088.2

u2 = 417.4 + 1331.374

u2 = 1748.774

Solving for m

m = V1/v1

m = 15L/1.08049

m = 0.015/1.08049

m = 0.01388Kg

So, -Qout = m(u2 - u1) becomes

0.01388(1748.774 - 2654.6)

= 0.01388 * -905.826

= -12.572

-Qout = -12.572

So, Qout = 12.572KJ

The dimensions of the room is 3 * 4 * 5.

The mass and volume of air in the room is given by

Volume = 3 * 4 * 6 = 72m³

Mass = P * V/RT

Where R = Gas Constant = 0.287

T = T1 = 7°C = 273+ 7 = 280K

P = P2 = 100kPa

Mass = (100 * 72)/(0.287 * 280)

Mass = 7200/80.36

Mass = 89.597Kg

The amount of work is defined by

Work = Fan work W * Time t

Work = 120 * 45 minutes

Work = 120 * 45 * 60seconds

Work = 324000J

Work (fan, in) = 324KJ

Taking the air in the room as the system

The energy balance is as follows

∆Energy = E(in) - E(out)

E(in) = Q(out) + W(fan,in)

E(out) = W(out)

∆Energy = ∆U

So, we have

∆U = Q(out) + W(fan,in) - W(out)

∆U + W(out) = Q(out) + W(fan,in)

∆U + W(out)  = 12.572 + 324

∆U + W(out) = 336.572

∆U + W(out) = ∆H (Change in heat energy)

This is given by mc(T2 - T1)

Where m = 89.597kg

c = specific heat of air at constant pressure = 1.005

T1 = 7°C

Substituting in these values, we have

336.572 = 89.597 *1.005 (T2 - 7)

=> 336.572 = 90.044985(T2 - 7)

T2 - 7 = 3.74

T2 = 3.74 + 7

T2 = 10.74°C

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Joyce Murphy runs a courier service in downtown Seattle. She charges clients $0.50 per mile driven. Joyce has determined that if
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Answer and Explanation:

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= $215 ÷ $0.30

= 717 miles

2.

Revenue for 4,200 miles is

= $0.50 × 4,200

= $2,100

And,

Variable Cost = $0.20 × 4,200

= $840

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= $1,260

And,

Fixed Cost = $215

So,

Net Income = Revenue - Variable Cost - Fixed Cost

= $2,100 - $840 - $215

= $1,045

So,  

Degree of Operating Leverage = Contribution Margin ÷ Net Income

= $1,260 ÷ $1,045

= 1.2057

3.

Degree of Operating Leverage = % Change in Net Income ÷ % Change in Sales

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8 0
2 years ago
A 12-year bond of a firm in severe financial distress has a coupon rate of 12% and sells for $920. The firm is currently renegot
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

13.37% ; 7.01%

Explanation:

The computation of the stated and expected yields to maturity of the bonds is shown in the attachment below:

For stated yield, we use the RATE formula i.e

Given that,  

Present value = $920

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 12% = $120

NPER = 12 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the stated yield is 13.37%

Now for expected yield, we also use the RATE formula i.e

Given that,  

Present value = $920

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 12% ÷ 2 = $60

NPER = 12 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the expected yield is 7.01%

5 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Surreal Manufacturing issued 570 bonds, each with a face value of $1,000, a stated interest rate of 3 percen
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

Period Carrying  cash outlay Interest Amort E.Carrying

1      554,184 17,100 22,167.36 5,067.36  559,251

2      559,251 17,100 22,370.05 5,270.05         564,521

3      564,521 17,100 22,580.86 5,480.86         570,002

journal entries

cash                                  554,184 debit

discount on bond payable 15,816 debit

          bonds payable                              570,000 credit

--to record issuance of the bonds--

interest expense 22,167.36 debit  

discount on BP                   5067.36 credit

cash                                   17100      credit

--to record interest payment--

bonds payable 570,000       debit

interest expense 22,580.86 debit

     discount on bonds payable 5,480.86 credit

    cash                                       587,100    credit

--to record retirement of the bonds

Explanation:

Under the effective interest method we determinate the interest expense by multiplying the carrying value of the bond by the market rate.

554,184 x 4% = 22,167.36

Then we compare with the actual cash payment:

570 bonds x 1,000 dollars each x 3% = 17,100 dollars

The difference will be the amortization on the bonds discount.

This, will generate a new carrying value so the process is repeated until maturity.

The journal entries will be as follows:

<u>on issuance:</u>

we receive cash, so we debited.

We assume a liability so tis credited and we also create the discount account to adjust the face value of the bond to what we really get for them

<u>on interest payment:</u>

we credit the cash outlay in favor of the bondholders

we debit the interest expense generate for the effective rate method

and we credit the discount by the difference

<u>retirement</u>

we credit the total cash outlay (principal + interest of the period)

we write-off the bonds payable and the bond discount

we reocgnize the last interest expense under debit

4 0
2 years ago
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