The correct order for the steps of the policy cycle is the first statement, the second statement, the fourth statement, and the third statement. The problem must be identified first before choosing the best policy to address it. After the best policy is chosen, implementing the policy would be the best option to see the effect. The last step is to evaluate the policy so the government and the public to ensure that the chosen policy is really the best option for the problem.
Well...if he earns $75 an hour....and he worked for 20 hours...that's
75 * 20 which = 1500
Now it says he also earns a flat fee....since the question states he billed the client 1800...and he only earned 1500 of it...that must mean that his flat fee would be
1800 - 1500 = 300
So his flat fee is 300...and his variable charge...is 75x (75 dollars per hour)
in an equation...this would look like
C(x) = 75x + 300
Answer:
Whether the technology provides benefits and responds to customers needs
Explanation:
Technological innovation can be defined as the introduction of new technical products and services or improving an existing ones.
One major reason for this is to address human needs and better serve individual . Therefore whenever any firm wants to launch any new product , it is important that it must create a balance between what is technically possible and whether the new technology provides benefits and responds to customers needs.
Answer:
$73.47
Explanation:
2.87 is the current dividend paid (D0)
Use that to find dividends for the next 5 years;
D1 = D0(1+g) ; g being the growth rate
D1 = 2.87(1.08) = 3.0996
D2 = 3.0996(1.08) = 3.3476
D3 =3.3476(1.08) = 3.6154
D4 = 3.6154(1.08) = 3.9046
D5 = 3.9046(1.08) = 4.2170
Next, find terminal cashflows;
D6 (yr 2024) = 4.2170 (1.03) = 4.3435
Find Present values of all the dividends using the 8% discount rate with the formula; PV = FV/
PV(D1) = 2.87
PV(D2) = 2.87
PV(D3) = 2.87
PV(D4)= 2.87
PV(D5)= 2.87
PV of terminal value; PV(D6 onwards) = 
= 59.1223
Sum up the PVs to find value per share;
$2.87 +$2.87 +$2.87 +$2.87 +$2.87+ $59.1223 = $73.47
Solution:
Manufacturing overhead expense volatility will be determined by subtracting the overhead cost of output from the total overhead cost of production according to the adjustable budget.
(Manufacturing overhead cost as per flexible budget) =
(Actual units x Variable manufacturing overhead per unit +Fixed manufacturing overhead )
= (5,050 x $1.30)+ $41,500 = $48,065
Actual manufacturing overhead cost = $47,905
Therefore, Manufacturing overhead spending variance
= $48,065 - $47,905 = $160
The deviation is positive as the real expense is smaller than the adjustable cost of the program.
