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alexdok [17]
2 years ago
10

What is the value today of $4,400 per year, at a discount rate of 8.3 percent, of the first payment is received 6 years from tod

ay and the last payment is received 20 years from today
Business
1 answer:
kodGreya [7K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Present Value = $290

Explanation:

The present value of a future payment

PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n}

Where r discount rate

t is the number of years until the payment will be received.

PV = Present Value = ?

FV = Payment = $4,400

r= 8.3% = 0.083

N = 20 - 6 = 14

PV = $4400 / (1 + 0.083)(20 - 6)

= $4400 / (1.083 * 14)

= $4400 / 15.162

= $290.1992

≅  $290

Present Value = $290

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Jeff, an employee at Citrus Inc., hears about a change in the company's leave policy from one of his coworkers and shares this i
Anton [14]

Answer:

grapevine communication

Explanation:

According to my research on different communication methods, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the information has been exchanged through grapevine communication. This is a form of communicating in which information is spread rapidly between employees and superiors and does not follow any structure or rule-based system.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

7 0
2 years ago
Mayan Company had net income of $34,000. The weighted-average common shares outstanding were 8,500. The company has no preferred
Sindrei [870]

Answer:

The company's earnings per share is $ 4.

Explanation:

EPS earning per share is an indicator widely used by investor of stock market in order to determine market value of their investment. EPS is directlty proportional to stock price.

EPS is calculated by dividing net income with outstanding common shares.

EPS = Net income/ outstanding common shares

EPS = 34,000/8,500 = $ 4

6 0
2 years ago
PB2.
olga55 [171]

Answer:

The contribution margin per unit for the 18-inch blade.

Break even in units = Fixed cost/Contribution per unit

                                = 85,000/11 (15-4)

                                = 7,728 unit (round off)

The contribution margin ratio of the 18-inch blade.

Total contribution margin (CM) is calculated by subtracting total variable costs TVC from total sales TSP. Contribution margin per unit equals sales price per unit SP minus variable costs per unit VC . It is used in calculating a break even point of a business. Contribution margin ratio tells us how much contribution towards fixed cost is generate by selling a unit.

CM ratio = $ 11/ $ 15 *100= 73.33%

(Variable cost = 15 -4 = 11 )

Contribution margin income statement for the month of January.

Sales                              $ 180,000

Variable cost                 ($ 48,000)

Gross profit                    $ 132,000

Fixed Cost                      ($ 85,000)

Net Profit                         $ 47,000

        

5 0
2 years ago
The comparative balance sheet of Merrick Equipment Co. for December 31, 20Y9 and 20Y8, is as follows:
Anni [7]

Answer and Explanation:

The preparation of cash flows, using the indirect method is shown below:-

Cash flow from operating activities

Net income $141,680

Adjustment made

Add: Depreciation $14,790

Add: Loss on sale of

investment $10,200

Current operating Assets  and liabilities change

Less: Increase in accounts  receivable -$19,040

Less: Increase in inventories -$8,670

Add: Increase in accounts  payable $11,560

Add: Accrued accounts payable  increased $3,740

Net cash flow from operating activities $154,260

Net cash flow from Investing activities

Investment sale $91,800

Less: Equipment purchased -$80,580

Less: Land purchased -$295,800

Net cash flow from investing activities -$284,580

Cash flow from financing activities

Common stock issued $250,000

Less: Paid Dividend -$96,900

Cash flow from financing activities $153,100

Net increase or decrease in cash $22,780

Add: Beginning cash balance $47,940

Ending cash balance $70,720

Working note

Dividend paid = Dividend declared - Increase in Dividend payable

= $102,000 - $5,100

= $96,900

Loss on sale of investment = Sale of investment of amount realized - Investment cost

= $91,800 - $102,000

= -$10,200

The positive amount represents the cash inflow and the negative amount represents the outflow of cash

4 0
2 years ago
Curling is a sport where teams slide stones on ice and attempt to hit targets. Teams consist of four players. Suppose that Bob,
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

Premium is likely to be $180.00

Explanation:

Two players have 40%  chance of slipping

Equally,two players have 20% chance of slipping

bruise cost per slip is $150

Premium=40% chance of slipping*bruise cost*2 players +20% chance of slipping*bruise cost*2 players

Premium=40%*$150*2+20%*$150*2

Premium=0.4*$150*2+0.2*$150*2

premium=$60*2+$30*2

premium=$120+$60

premium=$180.00

If the insurance company offers bruise insurance to the players ,the premium is likely to be in the region of $180.00

8 0
2 years ago
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