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Nookie1986 [14]
1 year ago
9

Suppose General Motors charges its Mexican subsidiary $1 million for auto assembly equipment that could be purchased on the open

market for $800,000. This practice is BEST referred to as:______
Business
2 answers:
SIZIF [17.4K]1 year ago
5 0

Answer: Transfer pricing

Explanation:

OLga [1]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

<em>Transfer pricing</em>

Explanation:

Goods and services move from one unit to another in the same country, it can also move from one country to another. Transfer pricing is used by companies or units that are usually related, to change the prices of goods and services as they move into such units or countries.

Transfer pricing is a strategy used by these companies to gain tax benefits internationally.

For example, General Motors charges a high price for sales of auto assembly equipment for its Mexican subsidiary. This high price will lead to a lower profit for the Mexican subsidiary which would result in a lower tax.

<em>General Motors is using transfer pricing to alter the tax they pay in Mexico by increasing the price of the products in Mexico.</em>

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Leelanau Corporation uses a job-order costing system. The following data are for last year: Work in process beginning balance $
ratelena [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is $138,500.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

WIP beginning = $10,500

WIP ending = $19,000

Cost of goods manufactured = $323,000

Direct material = $115,000

Direct labor = $78,000

So, we can calculate the amount of overhead by using following formula:

Overheads = Total manufacturing costs - Direct materials - Direct labor

Where, Total manufacturing cost = Cost of goods manufactured + Ending WIP - Beginning WIP

= $323,000 + $19,000 - $10,500

= $331,500

So, by putting the value in the formula:

Overheads = $331,500 - $115,000 - $78,000

= $138,500

Hence, the amount of overhead is $138,500.

3 0
1 year ago
After recording depreciation for the current year, Media Mania Incorporated decided to discontinue using its printing equipment.
Naily [24]

Answer:

1. the printing equipment is Impaired

2. Journal

Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (credit)

3. Journal

Accumulated Depreciation $554,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Printing Equipment (credit) $700,000

Explanation:

Impairement Loss (IAS 36) happens when the Carrying Amount of an Asset Exceeds its Recoverable Amount.

<u>Carrying Amount Calculation</u>

Carrying Amount = Cost - Accumulated Depreciation

                            = $752,000 - $554,000

                            = $198,000

<u>Recoverable Amount Determination</u>

Recoverable amount of an asset is the Higher of :

  1. Value in Use or
  2. Fair Value Less Cost to Sell

Only the fair value is provided, hence Recoverable amount is $52,000

<u>Analysis for Impairment loss</u>

Carrying Amount $198,000 > Recoverable amount $52,000

Therefore the printing equipment is Impaired

Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (credit)

6 0
1 year ago
Which of the following elements are included on the hierarchy of hazard control?
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:Implementing administrative controls Implementing engineering controls

Explanation:

8 0
1 year ago
Prepare the issuer's journal entry for each of the following separate transactions. On March 1, Atlantic Co. issues 43,500 share
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

Atlantic Co. Journal entries

a.

March 1

Dr Cash$300,500

Cr Common Stock $174,000

(43,500×4)

Cr Paid-in Capital$126,500

($300,000-$174,000)

(Record of common stock for cash)

b.

April 1

Dr Cash$72,000

Cr Common Stock$72,000

(Record of common stock for cash)

c.

April 6

Dr Inventory $41,000

Dr Machinery$145,000

Dr Note Receivable$91,000

Cr Common Stock$55,000

(2,200 shares *$25 per share)

Cr Paid-in Capital $222,000

($145,000+$91,000+$41,000=$277,000-$55,000= $222,000)

(To record Insurance for Inventory, machinery,and notes receivable)

Explanation:

Since On March 1 Atlantic Co. was said to issues 43,500 shares of $4 par value common stock for $300,500 this means that we have to

Debit Cash with $300,500 and Credit Common Stock with $174,000(43,500×4) as well as Credit Paid-in Capital with $126,500 ($300,000-$174,000)

On April 1, OP Co as well issues no-par value common stock for $72,000 cash this means we have to Debit Cash with $72,000 and Credit Common Stock with the same amount .

While On April 6, based on information given to us about MPG transaction, we have to record Insurance for Inventory, machinery,and notes receivable by Debiting each and Crediting common stock and paid in capital .

4 0
1 year ago
Item9 2 points Time Remaining 2 hours 55 minutes 49 seconds02:55:49 eBookItem 9Item 9 2 points Time Remaining 2 hours 55 minutes
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price $118

Units sold 2,300

Variable costs per unit:

Direct materials $37

Direct labor $23

Variable manufacturing overhead $3

Variable selling and administrative expense $5

<u>First, we need to determine the total unitary variable cost:</u>

Unitary variable cost= 37 + 23 + 3 + 5=$68

<u>Variable cost income statement:</u>

Sales= 2,300*118= 271,400

Total variable cost= 68*2,300= (156,400)

Total contribution margin= 115,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead= (73,500)

Fixed selling and administrative expense= (29,900)

Net operating income= 11,600

5 0
1 year ago
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