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vovangra [49]
2 years ago
15

Johnson's Plumbing's fixed costs are $700,000 and the unit contribution margin is $17. What amount of units must be sold in orde

r to realize an operating income of $100,000
Business
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Target profit in units = 47058.82 rounded off to 47059 units

Explanation:

The break even units of sales are the number of units that must be sold in order for the company to have enough total revenue to cover its total costs. It is a point in the number of units where there is no profit or no loss.

We can use the break even analysis and formulas to calculate the number of units required to earn a certain target profit. Thus, we will just need to add the target profit amount to the fixed costs in the break even in units formula. The formula to calculate the target profit in units is,

Target profit in units = (Fixed costs + Target profit) / Contribution margin per unit

Target profit in units = (700000 + 100000) / 17

Target profit in units = 47058.82 rounded off to 47059 units

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On January 1, 2020, Cougar Sales, Inc. issued $15,000 in bonds for $14,700. They were 6-year bonds with a stated rate of 9%, and
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

$700

Explanation:

If a bond is issued at a lower price than the face value of the bond, then the bond is issued on the discount. This discount is amortized over the bond's life. This amortization will be expensed as Interest Expense.

Discount = Face value - Issuance price = $15,000 - $14,700 = $300

Bond's Life = 6 years

Amortization of discount = $300 / 6 = $50 annually = $25 semiannually

Coupon Payment = Face Value x coupon Rate = $15,000 x 9% = $1.350 annually = $675 semiannually

Interest Expense Includes both the coupon payment and discount amortization for the period.

Interest Expense = $675 + $25 = $700

4 0
2 years ago
E3.3 (LO 3) (Unknown Rate) HQ Ltd. purchased a used truck from Trans Auto Sales Inc. HQ paid a $4,000 down payment and signed a
ivolga24 [154]

Answer: $35,000

Explanation:

The payments of $1,033.34 at the end of every month is a constant amount which makes it an annuity.

Present value of annuity:

= Annuity * (1 - (1 + rate) ^-no. of periods) / rate

Rate needs to be made a monthly rate:

= 4%/12

= 4/12%

= 1,033.34 * ( 1 - ( 1 + 4/12%) ⁻³⁶/ 4/12%

= $35,000

Purchase price = Down payment + Present value of annuity

= 4,000 + 35,000

= $39,000

7 0
2 years ago
In November 2008, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lowered its "repo" rate, the rate at which it lends to banks, from 8 percent t
Elan Coil [88]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is option B) Recession.

Explanation:

The reserve bank of India ( RBI ) has been lowering its repo rate ( which is the rate at which it lends to banks ) to counter the problem of recession in the economy. The aim here is to apply the expansionary monetary policy, in which the money supply in the economy would be increased by cutting down the interest rate, which will lead to decrease in cost of borrowing and increase in investment . The government would also increase its spending.

7 0
2 years ago
Lupo Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours. The
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

Unit Cost = $196

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Total variable overhead estimated = 4×31,400 = $125,600

Total overhead estimated = $125,600+$219,800 = $345,400

Predetermined overhead rate = $345,400÷31,400 = $11 per hour

Total overhead applied = $11×20 = $220

Hence, Total job cost = Direct material + Direct Labor + Total overhead

= $580 + $1,160 + $220

= $1,960

So, Unit cost = $1,960 ÷ 10 = $196

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are faced with the probability distribution of the HPR on the stock market index fund given in Spreadsheet 5.1 of the text.
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

Answer = $114

Explanation:

We are investing $107.55 in CD for 1 year with the risk free rate of 6% per annum.

So, at the end of 1 year we will receive the face value as well as the interest on the same.

So, ending value of CD = 107.55*1.06 (6% interest) = $114.003

= $114

Now, in case of the excellent economic conditions, the ending price of stock is $131. So, here instead of buying the stock from market we will exercise our call option at the rate of $110.

So, value of our call will be:-

Probability * Ending value of CD - cost of call option

= 0.25*114 - 12

= $16.5

So, combined value will be $130.5 (114 + 16.5) which is less than the market price of $131.

In all the other three cases, the end price of stock is less than the ending value of CD. So, instead of exercising the call option, we will purchase the stock from market at less price to make profits.

So, combined value in the other three cases will be the ending value of CD = $114.

5 0
2 years ago
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