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lesya [120]
2 years ago
12

1. A firm can lease a truck for 4 years at a cost of $30,000 annually. It can instead buy a truck at a cost of $80,000, with ann

ual maintenance expenses of $10,000. The truck will be sold at the end of 4 years for $20,000. Calculate the equivalent annual annuity to show the better option if the discount rate is 10%.
Business
2 answers:
Katena32 [7]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option 1 is preffered option because:

EAC of Instalment option = $30,000

EAC of Buying option = $37,660

Explanation:

The Equivalent Annual Cost would be calculated using the following formula:

Equivalent Annual Cost = Net Present Value of option / Annuity Factor

Now we will have to find the present value of the each option available.

Option 1

So present value of the installment option is given as under:

Present Value = Annual Cash flow * Annuity Factor

Here the annuity factor can be found from the following formula:

Annuity Factor = (1-(1+r)^-n ) / r

By putting the values we have:

Annuity Factor = (1 - (1.1)^-n) / 10% = 2.487

Present Value = $30000 * 2.487 = $74610

This implies

Equivalent Annual Cost = $74610 / 2.487 = $30000

Option 2

Present Value = $80000 Initial cash outflow +

$20000 cash inflow at Y4 / (1.1)^4 Discount factor at Year 4

Present Value = $80,000 + $20,000 / 1.4641

Present Value = $80,000 + $13,660 = $93,660

And

EAC = $93660 / 2.487 at 10% for 4 Years = $37,660

Decision Rule:

The cheapest option is the one with least value and in this case the cheapest option is option 1.

Alexxx [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The lease option is the better option.

Explanation:

We proceed as follows:

Step 1: Calculation of Lease Option NPV    

Year = n         Details             CF ($)     DF = 1/(1.1)^n   PV ($)

     1     Lease payment   (30,000)        0.9091         (27,273)

    2     Lease payment   (30,000)        0.8264         (24,793)

    3     Lease payment   (30,000)         0.7513         (22,539)

    4     Lease payment   (30,000)         0.6830         (20,490)

                                      Lease option NPV = (95,096)

Step 1: Calculation of Lease Option NPV Buy Option NPV      

Year = n        Details                  CF (CO)     DF = 1/(1.1)^n      PV  

     0  Purchase cost                  (80,000)       1.0000   (80,000)

     1   Maintenance expenses   (10,000)       0.9091      (9,091)

    2   Maintenance expenses   (10,000)       0.8264     (8,264)

    3   Maintenance expenses   (10,000)        0.7513      (7,513)

    4   Maintenance expenses   (10,000)       0.6830     (6,830)

    4   Residual value                   20,000        0.6830      13,660  

                                                     Buy option NPV = (98,038)

Step 3: Calculation of equivalent annual annuity (EAA)

The equivalent annual annuity (EAA) for each option can be calculated as follows:

EAA = (r x NPV) / (1 - (1 + r)^-n )

Where:

EAA = equivalent annuity cash flow

NPV = net present value

r = discount rate per period

n = number of periods

Therefore, we have:

Lease option EAA = (0.1 × -95,096) / (1 - (1 + 0.1)^-4)  = -30,000

Buy option EAA = (0.1 × 98,038) / (1 - (1 + 0.1)^-4)  = -30,928

Since the lease option has a lower EAA of $30,000 in terms of cash outlay than the buy option of higher EAA of $30,928 in terms of cash outlay, the lease option is the better option.

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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "E": Global marketing.

Explanation:

Global marketing refers to all the efforts a company males to promote its goods or services across its original borders. It allows firms to widen their possibilities of making more profits and reduces the risk of relying on domestic consumption only. Businesses with global marketing view tend to adapt their products to the different regions of operations or provide the most standardized version of their original good.

5 0
2 years ago
Daisy Company manufactures dog collars. The following selected data relates to Daisy? Company's budgeted sales and inventory lev
Allushta [10]

Answer:

<u>Hence, 2,140 units are to be produced in November.</u>

Explanation:

November unit sales=2,300

Add: November desired ending unit finished goods inventory=720

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8 0
2 years ago
Marquez purchased some equipment for $58,750 on August 15, 2018.
Sauron [17]

Answer:

$4,714

Explanation:

Given that,

Cost of equipment = $58,750

Equipment was subject to depreciation of $6,964 for 2018 and 2019.

Sale value of equipment = $56,500

Net book value = Cost of equipment - Depreciation

                          = $58,750 - $6,964

                          = $51,786

Capital gain = Net book value - Sale value

                    = $51,786 - $56,500

                    = $4,714

Therefore, the Marquez recognize a gain of $4,714 on the sale of the equipment.

4 0
1 year ago
Orlando Builders Inc. issued a bond with a par value of $1,000, a coupon rate of 9.00% (semiannual coupon), and a yield to matur
Rudik [331]

Answer:

Price of bond = $1,365.54

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).  </em>

Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV  

The value of bond for Orlando Builders Inc.  can be worked out as follows:  

Step 1  

PV of interest payments  

Semi annul interest payment  

= 9% × 1000 × 1/2 = 45  

Semi-annual yield = 5.80%/2 = 2.9 % per six months  

Total period to maturity (in months)  

= (2 × 19) = 38  periods  

PV of interest =  

45 × (1- (1+0.029)^(-21)/0.029)= 1028.087

Step 2  

PV of Redemption Value  

= 1000 × (1.029)^(-19×2) =337.45

Price of bond  

= 1028.08 + 337.45 =1365.54

Price of bond = $1,365.54

7 0
2 years ago
A project will produce an operating cash flow of $56,200 a year for 5 years. The initial fixed asset investment in the project w
Lelu [443]

Answer :

Net present value = -$18,375

Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

Initial investment = $239,800

The project will generate operating cash flow pf $56,200 for 5 years

So present value of operating cash flow :

PMT = $56,200

N = 5 years

Rate = 15.2%

FV = $0

Now applying the formula

= -PV(RATE,NPER,PMT,FV,0)

The present value comes $187,502

Now

FV = $67,000

n = 5 years

Rate = 15.2%

PMT = $0

Now applying the formula

= -PV(RATE,NPER,PMT,FV,0)

The present value comes $33,023

Now the Net present value is

= ($33,023 + $187,502) - $238,900

= -$18,375

5 0
2 years ago
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