All categories

1 year ago

The first phase of a comprehensive project risk assessment should be:

1 answer:

6 0

The first phase of a comprehensive project risk assessment should be "to make sure the project is well defined, including all deliverables, statement of work, and project scope".

Option: D

Explanation:

A comprehensive risk management framework (RMF) has been established and adopted to better manage the task risks by utilizing a well-defined mechanism in modern changing environment. Many ventures have been studied to determine the reasons of their failure and the risk components.

The RMF composed of six stages; identification of programs, risk analysis, risk evaluation, reaction development, contingency planning, and implementation and control. That procedure must be adapted to the unique circumstances of the task and the agency which undertakes it.

You might be interested in

Micro Miller Company’s budgeted sales for April were estimated at $700,000, sales commissions at 4% of sales, and the sales mana

kaheart [24]

Answer:

$119,500

Explanation:

Solution:

Recall that

The budgeted sales for Micro Miller company = $700,000,

Sales commissions of = 4%

The salary of sales manager = $80,000.

Now,

Since Budgeted Sales is $700,000

Then

sales commissions is calculated as follows:

Sales Commission=0.04*700000(A)= 28000

Thus,

Sales Manager's Salary(B) = $80,000

Hence,

The shipping expenses = 0.01*700000 = $7000

Miscellaneous selling expenses becomes

Fixed = 1000

Variable =3500 700000 * 0. 5 = 119500

7 0

2 years ago

The competitive equilibrium rent in a standard two bedroom apartment in lawrence (a city) is $600. now suppose the city council

Mekhanik [1.2K]

Setting a rent control price ceiling will cause the same impact as any other price ceiling that is below the market equilibrium price: it will create a shortage in the market. At the price equilibrium of $600, the number of renters would exactly meet the number of available 2 bedroom apartments. However, with this fixed price ceiling, the position along the demand curve will shift to one of higher demand, with no analogous change in the supply curve. Thus there will be more renters than can be supported, and renters will have to look for alternatives and substitutes.

8 0

2 years ago

Mark runs a home improvement business. He is happy with the level of business he receives, but he wants to learn more about his

Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

Secondary Data

Explanation:

Secondary data is defined as the data that is collected by the other people other than the end users of it.

In the case, Mark is the end users. And the data is of U.S census bureau, other governments agencies, database, however, is not collected by Mark but by marketing research firms and different reports instead.

So that, in this case, Mark is using secondary data.

5 0

1 year ago

Sew ‘N More just paid an annual dividend of $1.42 a share. The firm plans to pay annual dividends of $1.45, $1.50, and $1.53 ove

andre [41]

Answer:

Stock Worth Today: $3,71 + $10,93 = $14,64

Stock Worth Today: Present Value (3 Next Years) + Present Value (Perpetuity)

Explanation:

We need to apply two financial methods to find the value of the shares today.

First, the Present value formula for the next 3 years, and for the rest we apply the Perpetuity formula, then to the result of Perpetuity we apply the Present Value because it's expressed in values of Year 4.

Present Value Formula : C/(1+r)^t to each cash dividends each year.

Perpetuity Formula : Dividend / r

PV of the perpetuity = Periodic cash inflow/ Interest rate

Perpetuity = 1,60/ interest rate

Perpetuity = 1,60/ 0,10

Perpetuity = $16

The Perpetuity it's expressed at the moment of Year 4, we need to discount the Perpetuity to the current time:

Present Value Formula : C/(1+r)^t = 16/(1,10)^4 = $10,93

PV of the the next 3 years dividends.

Present Value = 1,45/(1+0,1)^1 + 1,50/(1+0,1)^2 + 1,53/(1+0,1)^3

Present Value = 1,32 + 1,24 + 1,15

Present Value = $3,71

7 0

2 years ago

In the simulation, explain how the original order results in one $22 fee, while the Wells Fargo reordering results in four $22 f

aksik [14]

Answer:

In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22.

In a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft.

Explanation:

In a situation in which the transactions that occurred were been arranged accordingly or just exactly the way the transaction happened which means that the customer will owe the amount of $22 because based on the information given we were told that the customer original order resulted in one $22 fee which means that 1 multiply by $22 fee will give us $22 (1*22) which is the amount owe by the customer.

Secondly in a situation in which the transactions are been posted in descending order which is from largest transaction to the smallest transactions the customer money in his or her bank account will reduce quickly which will in turn make the customer to have the amount of $88 as overdraft reason been that we were been told that the reordering resulted in four $22 fee which means that four multiply by $22 fee will give us $88 (4*22).

4 0

1 year ago