Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
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Answer:
The correct answer is $ 4.5714 which is not in the answer choice but is close to $432.00 million
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
let us Assume that Omicron uses the entire $60 million to repurchase shares. The amount of the regular yearly dividends in the future is closest to is:
The Enterprise value =$48/0.10 = $480 million
Then,
The Market value = Enterprise value + cash = $480 + $60 = $540 million
Thus,
The Share price = market value / shares outstanding = $480 million / 12 million = $40
The Number of shares repurchased = $60 million / $40 = 1,500,000 shares
The Shares outstanding = 12,000,000 - 1,500,000 = 10,500,000
Dividend = $48 million free cash flow / 10,500,000 = $4.571