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NikAS [45]
2 years ago
6

Wallis company manufactures only one product and uses a standard cost system. the company uses a predetermined plantwide overhea

d rate that relies on direct labor-hours as the allocation base. all of the company's manufacturing overhead costs are fixed—it does not incur any variable manufacturing overhead costs. the predetermined overhead rate is based on a cost formula that estimated $2,886,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead for an estimated allocation base of 288,600 direct labor-hours. wallis does not maintain any beginning or ending work in process inventory.
Business
1 answer:
Tju [1.3M]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $10 per direct labor hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated manufacturing overhead= $2,886,000

Estimated direct labor hours= 288,600

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2,886,000/288,600= $10 per direct labor hour

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Assume there is a fixed exchange rate between the Canadian and U.S. dollar. The expected return and standard deviation of return
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

standard deviation = 15.21%

so correct option is B. 15.21%

Explanation:

given data

expected return US = 18%

standard deviation of return US = 15%

expected return canadian = 13%

standard deviation of return canadian = 20%

covariance of returns = 1.5 %

to find out

standard deviation of return

solution

standard deviation is find here as given formula that is

standard deviation = \sqrt{w1^2*\sigma_1^2 + w2^2*\sigma_2^2 + 2*w1*w2*convariance}     ................1

here w1 is amount invested in US stock and w2 is investment in canada and σ1 is Standard deviation return of US and σ2 is Standard deviation return of canada

put here value in equation 1 we get

standard deviation = \sqrt{0.50^2* 0.15^2 + 0.50^2* 0.20^2 + 2*0.50*0.50*0.015}

solve it we get

standard deviation =  0.1520690

standard deviation = 15.21%

so correct option is B. 15.21%

7 0
2 years ago
A company incurred $1,000 in costs to produce 500 units which sell for $1,500. Upon inspection, it was determined the units were
tester [92]

Answer:

rework the units by spending $750 extra in order to get $1,500 in revenue

Explanation:

The company incurred in the following sunk costs:

  • production costs = $2 per unit

Since the 500 units were all defective the company can:

sell the defective units at $1 each = $1 x 500 = $500 revenue

reworking the units for $1.50 each and selling them for $3 ⇒ contribution margin = $3 - $1.50 = $1.50 per unit, which results in a $750 gross profit

The company must consider the $1,000 spent first as sunk costs, since whatever action they decide, they will not recover them. Therefore the company must only analyze the alternatives starting from scratch.  

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
After you have discovered your career path, it is important that you;
kondor19780726 [428]
B in my option you should always have a back up plan but it's also very important to commit when you've found something that you enjoy and are capable of doing.
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A real option enables the investor to buy an option for a small initial investment, hold it until a decision point arrives, and
Degger [83]

The statement,"A real option enables the investor to buy an option for a small initial investment, hold it until a decision point arrives, and then exercise or abandon the option." is False .

<u>Explanation: </u>

A real option is to give corporate investment options to a company's executives. It is called "actual" because it usually refers to projects that involve a tangible asset rather than a financial product. Physical assets such as equipment, capital assets and the products are tangible assets.

The decision to extend or delay or wait or to leave a proposal may be real options. Real options require decisions or preferences that give people discretion and possible benefits when making financial decisions.

6 0
2 years ago
If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;

The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.

Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.

= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.

Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .

8 0
2 years ago
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