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lozanna [386]
2 years ago
10

A real option enables the investor to buy an option for a small initial investment, hold it until a decision point arrives, and

then exercise or abandon the option. true or false?
Business
1 answer:
Degger [83]2 years ago
6 0

The statement,"A real option enables the investor to buy an option for a small initial investment, hold it until a decision point arrives, and then exercise or abandon the option." is False .

<u>Explanation: </u>

A real option is to give corporate investment options to a company's executives. It is called "actual" because it usually refers to projects that involve a tangible asset rather than a financial product. Physical assets such as equipment, capital assets and the products are tangible assets.

The decision to extend or delay or wait or to leave a proposal may be real options. Real options require decisions or preferences that give people discretion and possible benefits when making financial decisions.

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Brief Exercise 5-8 Cullumber Company has a unit selling price of $630, variable costs per unit of $300, and fixed costs of $327,
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

(a)

Mathematical Equation for break-even

F = QP - QV

Where

F = fixed cost

Q = Break-even quantity

P = Selling price

V = Variable cost

F = Q ( P - V )

Q = F / ( P - V )

Q = $327,030 / ( $630 - $300 )

Q = $327,030 / $330

Q = 991 units

(b)

Contribution Margin = Price per unit - Variable cost per unit

Contribution Margin = $630 - $300 = $330

Break-even Point in Units = Fixed Cost / Contribution margin per unit

Break-even Point in Units = $327,030 / $330 = 991 units

Explanation:

Mathematical equation use the the break-even equation which represent the behavior of each element towards the break-even point.

Contribution per unit method use the contribution of each unit to calculate the break-even point.

5 0
1 year ago
On April 1, Griffith Publishing Company received $24,480 from Santa Fe, Inc. for 36-month subscriptions to several different mag
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

Dr Unearned Fees, $6,120

Cr Fees Earned, $6,120

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the On April 1, the Company received the amount of $24,480 for 36-month subscription in which the company credited Unearned Fees for the amount received therefore the adjusting entry that the company should be record on December 31 of the first year will be:

Dr Unearned Fees, $6,120

Cr Fees Earned, $6,120

Working:

Amount the company received $24,480 ÷Months of Subscription 36 months

*April to December will give us 9 months

Hence,

$24,480/36*9

=$680*9

=$6,1,20

6 0
1 year ago
Colgate reported Diluted EPS of $2.38 in accordance with GAAP. How much higher would EPS be if Colgate ignored the impact of res
Fantom [35]

Answer:

EPS will be higher than $2.38

Explanation:

The earnings per share are the income that is accessible to the company's shareholders after all the costs and taxes are deducted. Restructuring costs are one-time costs that are recorded in the income statement as other operating expenses.

The presence of restructuring and other one-time costs in the Revenue Statement leads to lower pre-tax earnings and cause decrease in net profit. When these expenses are excluded, the Earning would increase, resulting in the company's EPS.

4 0
2 years ago
_____ is the control of behavior by manipulating its consequences
melomori [17]
It is operant conditioning.
4 0
1 year ago
MJ LTD is expected to grow at various rates over the next five years. The company just paid a $1.00 dividend. The company expect
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

$21.859

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period

1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1

                  = 1.20 ÷ 1.12

                 = 1.071

2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2

                   = $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254

                  = $1.148

3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3

                    = $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405

                     = $1.127

4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4

                    = $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574

                     = $1.107

5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5

                     = $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762

                     = $1.088

6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]

= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) ×  (1.762)

= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233

= $16.318

Now

Share’s Current Value is

= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318

= $21.859

We simply applied the above formula

5 0
1 year ago
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