Answer:
(a)
Mathematical Equation for break-even
F = QP - QV
Where
F = fixed cost
Q = Break-even quantity
P = Selling price
V = Variable cost
F = Q ( P - V )
Q = F / ( P - V )
Q = $327,030 / ( $630 - $300 )
Q = $327,030 / $330
Q = 991 units
(b)
Contribution Margin = Price per unit - Variable cost per unit
Contribution Margin = $630 - $300 = $330
Break-even Point in Units = Fixed Cost / Contribution margin per unit
Break-even Point in Units = $327,030 / $330 = 991 units
Explanation:
Mathematical equation use the the break-even equation which represent the behavior of each element towards the break-even point.
Contribution per unit method use the contribution of each unit to calculate the break-even point.
Answer:
Dr Unearned Fees, $6,120
Cr Fees Earned, $6,120
Explanation:
Based on the information given we were told that the On April 1, the Company received the amount of $24,480 for 36-month subscription in which the company credited Unearned Fees for the amount received therefore the adjusting entry that the company should be record on December 31 of the first year will be:
Dr Unearned Fees, $6,120
Cr Fees Earned, $6,120
Working:
Amount the company received $24,480 ÷Months of Subscription 36 months
*April to December will give us 9 months
Hence,
$24,480/36*9
=$680*9
=$6,1,20
Answer:
EPS will be higher than $2.38
Explanation:
The earnings per share are the income that is accessible to the company's shareholders after all the costs and taxes are deducted. Restructuring costs are one-time costs that are recorded in the income statement as other operating expenses.
The presence of restructuring and other one-time costs in the Revenue Statement leads to lower pre-tax earnings and cause decrease in net profit. When these expenses are excluded, the Earning would increase, resulting in the company's EPS.
It is operant conditioning.
Answer:
$21.859
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
Present Value = D0 × (1 + growth rate)^time ÷ (1 + Required Rate of Return)^time period
1st Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^1 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^1
= 1.20 ÷ 1.12
= 1.071
2nd Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 ÷ (1+ 0.12)^2
= $1 × (1.44) ÷ 1.254
= $1.148
3rd Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10) ÷ (1 + 0.12)^3
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.10) ÷ 1.405
= $1.127
4th Year PV = $1 × ( 1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + 0.10)^2 ÷ ( 1 +0.12)^4
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.21) ÷ 1.574
= $1.107
5th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × ( 1 +0.10)^3 ÷ (1 + 0.12)^5
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) ÷ 1.762
= $1.088
6th Year PV = $1 × (1 + 0.20)^2 × (1 + .10)^3 × (1.05) ÷ [(0.12 - 0.05) × (1+.12)^5]
= $1 × (1.44) × (1.331) × (1.05) ÷ (0.07) × (1.762)
= $2.012 ÷ 0.1233
= $16.318
Now
Share’s Current Value is
= $1.071 + $1.148 + $1.127 + $1.107 + $1.088 + $16.318
= $21.859
We simply applied the above formula