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antiseptic1488 [7]

2 years ago

8

Compute the variances in dollar amount and in percentage. (Round to the nearest whole percent.) Indicate whether the variance is

favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). Budgeted Income Amount $500.00 Actual Amount $400.00 Dollar Variance $ Percent Variance % F or U

1 answer:

ANTONII [103]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The dollar variance is -$100.

The percent variance is -20%.

Since the actual income is less than the budgeted income, the variance is unfavorable (U).

We calculate Dollar Variance as : $Actual Amount - Budgeted Income$

$Dollar Variance = 400 - 500 = 100$

Next, we calculate percent variance as :

$Percent variance = \frac{Dollar Variance}{Budgeted Income} *100$

Plugging the values in we get,

$Percent Variance = \frac{-100}{500} *100$

Percent Variance = -20%

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Answer:

Rises

Explanation:

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2 years ago

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4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Masterson, Inc., has 4.1 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $84, and the book value per shar

Kitty [74]

Answer:

The answer is "8.37%".

Explanation:

$\text{MV of equity} = \text{equity price} \times \text{number of outstanding shares}$

$=84 \times 4100000\\\\=344400000$

$\text{MV of Bond1}=\text{Par value} \times \text{bonds outstanding} \times \text{age of percentage}$

$=1000 \times 70000 \times 0.98 \\\\=68600000$

$\text{MV of Bond2}=\text{Par value} \times \text{bonds outstanding} \times \text{age of percentage}$

$=1000 \times 50000 \times 1.08 \\\\=54000000$

$\text{MV of firm} = \text{MV of Equity} + \text{MV of Bond1}+ \text{MV of Bond 2}$

$=344400000+68600000+54000000\\\\=467000000$

$\text{Weight of equity W(E)} = \frac{\text{MV of Equity}}{\text{MV of firm}}$

$= \frac{344400000}{467000000}\\\\=0.7375$

$\text{Weight of debt W(D)}= \frac{\text{MV of Bond}}{\text{MV of firm}}$

$= \frac{122600000}{467000000}\\\\=0.2625$

Equity charges

By DDM.

$\text{Price = new dividend} \times \frac{(1 + \text{rate of growth})}{( \text{Equity expense-rate of growth)}}$

$84 = 3.95 \times \frac{(1+0.05)}{(\text{Cost of equity}- 0.05)}\\\\84 = 3.95 \times \frac{(1.05)}{(\text{Cost of equity} - 0.05)}\\\\84 = \frac{4.1475}{ (\text{Cost of equity} - 0.05)}\\\\\text{Cost of equity} -0.05 = \frac{4.1475}{84}\\\\\text{Cost of equity} -0.05 = 0.049375\\\\\text{Cost of equity} = 0.049375 + 0.05\\\\\text{Cost of equity} = 0.099375 \\\\\text{Cost of equity} \% = 9.9375 \% \ \ \ or \ \ \ 9.94 \% \\\\$

Debt expenses

Bond1

$K = N \times 2 \\\\$

$Bond \ Price = \sum [ \frac{\text{(Semi Annual Coupon)}}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^k}] + \frac{Par\ value}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^{N \times 2}}$

$k=1\\\\K =20 \times 2\\\\980 = \sum [ \frac {(5.1 \times \frac{1000}{200})}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})^k}] + \frac{1000}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})}^{20 \times 2}\\\\k=1\\\\\ YTM1 = 5.2628923903\\\\Bond2\\$

$K = N \times 2$

$Bond \ Price = \sum [ \frac{\text{(Semi Annual Coupon)}}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^k}] + \frac{Par\ value}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{2})^{N \times 2}}$

$k=1\\\\K =12 \times 2\\\\$

$1080 =\sum [\frac{(5.6 \times \frac{1000}{200})}{(1 + \frac{YTM}{200})^k}] +\frac{1000}{(1 +\frac{YTM}{200})^{12 \times 2}} \\\\k=1\\\\YTM2 = 4.72\\\\$

$\text{Company debt costs} = YTM1 times \frac{(MV \ bond1)}{(MV \ bond1+MV \ bond2)}+YTM2 \times \frac{(MV \ bond2)}{(MV \ bond2)}\\\\$

The cost of the debt for the company:

$= 5.2628923903 \times \frac{(68600000)}{(68600000+54000000)}+4.72 \times \frac{(68600000)}{(68600000+54000000)}\\\\$

Business debt cost= $5.02 \% \\\\$

after taxation cost of debt:

$= \text{cost of debt} \times (1- tax \ rate)\\\\= 5.02 \times (1-0.21)\\\\= 3.9658\\\\$

$WACC= \text{after debt charges} \times W(D)+equity cost \times W(E) \\\\$

$=3.97 \times 0.2625+9.94 \times 0.7375 \\\\ =8.37 \% \\\\$

7 0

2 years ago

Trucks R' Us has a market capitalization of $142 million, $78 billion in BB rated debt, and $10 billion in cash. If Trucks R' Us

Sati [7]

Answer:

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

Debt is given as $78 billion

Equity is given as $142 billion

equity beta given as 1.68

Therefore, in order to calculate the underlying asset beta we would have to use the formula of the the equity beta for a levered firm as follows:

betaE =beta A [1 + (Debt / Equity)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + ($78 B/ $142 B)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + 0.5493]

betaA = 1.68 / 1.5493

betaA = 1.08

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

6 0

2 years ago

Fontaine Inc. recently reported net income of $2 million. It has 500,000 shares of common stock, which currently trades at $40 a

Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

$50

Explanation:

Given,

Current Net income = $2,000,000

No. of common shares today = 500,000

Current market price per share = $40

Anticipated Net income in 1 year = $ 3,250,000

Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year = 500,000 +150000 =650,000

From this data, then

The current Earnings Per Share(EPS) = $\frac{2,000,000}{500,000} = 4$

Current Price/Earning ratio = $\frac{ Price per share}{EPS} = \frac{40}{4} = 10$

Anticipated EPS in 1 year= $\frac{Anticipated Net income in 1 year }{Anticipated No. of common shares in 1 year } = \frac{3,250,000}{650,000} = $5$

If the company's P/E ratio remain as that of the current at 10, then

The anticipated price of stock in 1 year = Anticipated EPS * P/E ratio in 1 year

= $5 *10 = $50

4 0

2 years ago