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rosijanka [135]
2 years ago
11

Your uncle will sell you his bicycle shop for $170,000, with "seller financing," at a 6.0% nominal annual rate. The terms of the

loan would require you to make 12 equal end-of-month payments per year for 4 years, and then make an additional final (balloon) payment of $50,000 at the end of the last month. What would your equal monthly payments be?
Business
2 answers:
Akimi4 [234]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A loan payment calculator provides the information you need when deciding whether or not you can afford to borrow money.

In the above question, it's my job to see how much I need to pay my uncle if I borrowed $170,000 from him at an annual interest rate of 6%.

I'm supposed to payback monthly over the next 4 years.

Given the above, my monthly payment is computed as follows:

STEP I - Define Formula and Variables

Note firstly that the monthly payments are in instalments.

Formula:  

               

(P x I) x ((1 + r)n)/ (t x ((1 + r)n)- 1)

P is the principal amount borrowed,

I is the annual interest rate,

r is the periodic monthly interest rate,

n is the total number of monthly payments, and t is the number of months in a year.

 

P: $170,000, the amount of the loan

r: 0.005 (6% annual rate—expressed as 0.06—divided by 12 monthly payments per year)

n: 48 (12 monthly payments per year times 4 years)

STEP II - Insert Variables

Inserting our given information we have:

= ($170,000 + ($170,000 x 4 x 0.005)) / (4 x 12)

STEP III - Simplify

Simplified further we have

= ($170,000+$3400)/48

= $173,400/48

= $3,612.5

So equal monthly payments would be equal to

= $3,612.5

Cheers!

olga_2 [115]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The equal monthly payment is $3,068.20  

Explanation:

The equally monthly payments can be computed using the pmt formula in excel.

=pmt(rate,nper,pv,fv)

rate is the monthly nominal rate of 6%/12=0.5%

nper is the number of monthly payments required which is 4*12=48

pv is the current value of the bicycle of $170,000

fv is the worth balance of the financing arrangement at the end of fourth year that should be paid once ,$50,000 balloon payment

=pmt(0.5%,48,-170000,50000)

=$3,068.20  

Note that the interest is one month interest rate as the payment is expected monthly.

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A business owner makes 50 items a day. She spends 8 hours in producing those items. If hired elsewhere she could have earned $10
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Explicit costs = $10,000

Here, the implicit cost is the cost of sacrificing money income from job:

= $10 per hour × 8 hours a day × 30 days

= $2,400

Revenues:

= Items produced in a day × Selling price of each × 30 days

= 50 × $10 × 30

= $15,000

Therefore,

Economic profit for the month:

= Revenues - Explicit costs - Implicit cost

= $15,000 - $10,000 - $2,400

= $2,600

8 0
2 years ago
Jackson Brothers decided to create a petty cash fund. They estimated that $200 would be needed in the fund. Demonstrate the corr
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

Petty Cash is debited for $200; Cash is credited for $200

Explanation:

Based on the information given in a situation were they decided to create a petty cash fund in which it was estimated that the amount of $200 would be needed in the petty cash fund which means that the correct journal entry to create the account is to DEBIT Petty Cash with the amount of $200 and to CREDIT Cash with the amount of $200.

Petty Cash is debited for $200

Cash is credited for $200

6 0
1 year ago
The spot USD /GBP rate is 1.5711. The1 year t-bill rate in the US is .19%. The 1 year rate in the UK is 0.39%.
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Spot USD/GBP rate = 1.5711

(a) 1 year USD/GBP forward rate:

= [Spot rate × (1 + Domestic currency interest rate)] ÷ (1 + foreign currency interest rate)

= [1.5711 × (1+0.19%)] ÷ (1 + 0.39%)

= 1.56797, which means the USD will be at a forward premium

b) The observed 1 year forward rate is 1.60 which differs from the ideal forward rate.

This means an arbitrage opportunity exists here.

c) I would sell GBP forward for 1 year @ 1.60.

This means that I will receive USD 1.60 for every 1 GBP I sell instead of  1.56797 that is the ideal deal.

This is how I would take advantage of the arbitrage opportunity.

8 0
1 year ago
On January 1, 2017, Christel Madan Corporation had inventory of $56,000. At December 31, 2017, Christel Madan had the following
lara [203]

Answer:

Gross Profit = $304,050

Operating expenses = $162,050

Explanation:

The computation of gross profit and operating expenses is shown below:-

Net purchases = Purchase - Purchase discounts - Purchase returns and allowances

= $505,500 - $7,250 - $3,500

= $494,750    

Cost of goods sold = Net purchases + Freight-in + Inventory + Ending inventory

= $494,750 + $4,100 + $56,000 - $66,000

= $488,850    

Gross profit = Net sales - Cost of goods sold

= ($810,000 - $5,100 - $12,000) - $488,850

= $304,050

Operating expenses = Gross profit - Net income

= $304,050 - $142,000

= $162,050

7 0
2 years ago
Jitensha Bike Parts was called to testify before the U.S. Congress. The CEO of Jitensha defended the company against an accusati
suter [353]

Answer:

the company includes at least 10% of overhead costs and an 8% profit margin in all the sales.

Explanation:

Dumping occurs when companies export their products at a lower price than domestic sales price. American laws prohibit dumping and require foreign firms to include 10% overhead costs + an 8% profit margin in the prices of the goods they export to the US.

5 0
2 years ago
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