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2 years ago

David represents a potato chip company. he calls on supermarkets to discuss pricing and product placement. david is a(n) _____.

Business

1 answer:

MAXImum [283]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Trade salesperson.

Explanation:

Trade salesperson: They are the person who keeps in touch with the retailer and helps them to display, advertise and sell a product to the end-user. They also advise retailers on how to push the product in the market and introducing new strategies to promote its product. In the recent era of the supermarket, it is important to position the product at the right place to make it visible to the customer and the right price to make it affordable to the target customer.

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The repair service that fixes your farming equipment doesn’t seem to fix your plow correctly. The technician says that if you ar

drek231 [11]

Answer:

Your best option would be for higher quality repairs and higher quality equipment, this would save you more money and time in the long run where you have the ability to do other things.

Explanation:

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A business consultant earns a flat fee for his work as well as an hourly fee. He charges his clients at a rate of $75 per hour.

Delicious77 [7]

Well...if he earns $75 an hour....and he worked for 20 hours...that's
75 * 20 which = 1500
Now it says he also earns a flat fee....since the question states he billed the client 1800...and he only earned 1500 of it...that must mean that his flat fee would be
1800 - 1500 = 300
So his flat fee is 300...and his variable charge...is 75x (75 dollars per hour)
in an equation...this would look like
C(x) = 75x + 300

4 0

2 years ago

Northwest Catering owns and operates several restaurant services in Oregon, Washington, and Idaho. One restaurant chain has expe

Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

1.3 million Impaired asset is the determined amount

Explanation:

Asset impaired as the estimated fair value cash flows is lower than book value

Impairment loss = Fair value - Book value

= 3.0 million - 4.3 million

= 1.3 million Impaired asset

An impaired asset is an asset that has a market value less than the value which was disclosed on the organisation balance sheet. When an asset is said to be impaired, it will need to be written down on the company's balance sheet to its current market value.

7 0

2 years ago

Shunda Corporation wholesales parts to appliance manufacturers. On January 1, Shunda issued $30,000,000 of five-year, 10% bonds

ahrayia [7]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The Journal entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr, $32,433,150

To Premium on Bonds Payable $2,433,150

To Bonds Payable $30,000,000

(Being Sale of bonds is recorded)

2. Interest Expense Dr, $1,297,326

($32,433,150 × 4%)

Premium on Bonds Payable Dr, $202,674

To Cash $1,500,000

($30,000,000 × 5%)

(Being First semiannual interest payment, including amortization of premium is recorded)

3. Interest Expense Dr, $1,289,219

($32,433,150 - $202,674) × 4%

Premium on Bonds Payable Dr, $210,781

To Cash $1,500,000

(Being second semiannual interest payment, including amortization of premium is recorded)

($30,000,000 × 5%)

b. Annual interest paid $3,000,000

Less: Premium amortized $364,094

($202,674 + $161,420)

Interest expense for first year $2,635,906

7 0

2 years ago

Barnett Industries, Inc., issued $600,000 of 8% bonds on January 1, 2019. The bonds pay interest semiannually on July 1 and Janu

Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

1. The selling price of the bonds is $590.976.46

2 .The journal entry for the issuance of the bonds and bond issue costs would be as follows:

Debit Credit

Cash $538,976.26

Discount on bonds payable $39,023.74

Unamortized bonds issue costs $22,000

Bonds Payable $600,000

3. Assuming that Barnett uses IFRS, the journal entry for the issuance of the bonds would be as follows:

Debit Credit

Cash $600,000

Bonds Payable $600,000

Explanation:

In order to calculate the selling price of the bonds we would have to calculate first the present value of particular and present value of interest, hence:

present value of particular=($600,000×0.414643)=$248,785.80

present value of interest=$600,000×4%13.007936=$312,190.46

Therefore, selling price of the bonds=present value of particular+present value of interest

1. Selling price of the bonds=$248,785.80+$312,190.46=$590.976.46

2. The journal entry for the issuance of the bonds and bond issue costs would be as follows:

Debit Credit

Cash $538,976.26

Discount on bonds payable $39,023.74

Unamortized bonds issue costs $22,000

Bonds Payable $600,000

3. Assuming that Barnett uses IFRS, the journal entry for the issuance of the bonds would be as follows:

Debit Credit

Cash $600,000

Bonds Payable $600,000

4 0

2 years ago