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noname [10]
2 years ago
9

After recording depreciation for the current year, Media Mania Incorporated decided to discontinue using its printing equipment.

The equipment had cost $752,000, accumulated depreciation was $554,000, and its fair value (based on estimated future cash flows from selling the equipment) was $52,000.
Determine whether the equipment is impaired.
Prepare the journal entries to record the impairment in asset if any.
Record the entry to remove accumulated depreciation.
Record the impairment loss.
Business
1 answer:
Naily [24]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1. the printing equipment is Impaired

2. Journal

Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (credit)

3. Journal

Accumulated Depreciation $554,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Printing Equipment (credit) $700,000

Explanation:

Impairement Loss (IAS 36) happens when the Carrying Amount of an Asset Exceeds its Recoverable Amount.

<u>Carrying Amount Calculation</u>

Carrying Amount = Cost - Accumulated Depreciation

                            = $752,000 - $554,000

                            = $198,000

<u>Recoverable Amount Determination</u>

Recoverable amount of an asset is the Higher of :

  1. Value in Use or
  2. Fair Value Less Cost to Sell

Only the fair value is provided, hence Recoverable amount is $52,000

<u>Analysis for Impairment loss</u>

Carrying Amount $198,000 > Recoverable amount $52,000

Therefore the printing equipment is Impaired

Impairement Loss $146,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairement Loss $146,000 (credit)

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Upton Umbrellas has a cost of equity of 11.6 percent, the YTM on the company's bonds is 6.2 percent, and the tax rate is 40 perc
matrenka [14]

Answer:

WACC = 9.86%

so correct option is d. 9.86%

Explanation:

given data

cost of equity = 11.6 percent

bonds = 6.2 percent

bonds sell = 103.2 percent

debt book value = $408,000

total assets book value= $952,000

market to book ratio = 2.74 times

to find out

what is the company's WACC

solution

we get here first Total book value of equity that is express as

Total book value of equity = Total assets book value - Total debt book value   .................1

Total book value of equity  = 952000 - 408000

Total book value of equity = $544000

and here market to book ratio  is

market to book ratio  = \frac{market\ value}{book\ value}

so market value of equity = (2.74 × 544000) = $1490560

and  

After tax cost of debt = 6.2 (1 - tax rate)

After tax cost of debt = 6.2 (1 - 0.4)

After tax cost of debt = 3.72%

and

Market value of Debt = 408000 × 103.2%  

Market value of Debt   = $421056

so

Total market value = $1490560 + $421056

Total market value is =$1911616

and  

WACC will be

WACC = Respective costs × Respective weights

WACC =  \frac{1490560}{1911616}11.6 + 3.72\frac{421056}{1911616}

WACC = 9.86%

so correct option is d. 9.86%

4 0
2 years ago
10. Veda Inc., a manufacturer of cosmetics, offers two product lines, each catering to a distinct segment. Its most popular bran
Mama L [17]

Answer:

The type of segmentation  Veda Inc. is using is called Psychographic segmentation.

Explanation:

Market segmentation is the process of dividing a target market into smaller, more defined categories.  It makes it easier to focus marketing efforts and resources on reaching the most valuable audiences and achieving business goals.

Psychographic segmentation categorizes audiences and customers by factors that relate to their personalities and characteristics.  Alo, targets women who want makeup that will last at least ten hours after application. This covers a niche market of women who are looking for makeup with anti-ageing properties.

4 0
2 years ago
E3.3 (LO 3) (Unknown Rate) HQ Ltd. purchased a used truck from Trans Auto Sales Inc. HQ paid a $4,000 down payment and signed a
ivolga24 [154]

Answer: $35,000

Explanation:

The payments of $1,033.34 at the end of every month is a constant amount which makes it an annuity.

Present value of annuity:

= Annuity * (1 - (1 + rate) ^-no. of periods) / rate

Rate needs to be made a monthly rate:

= 4%/12

= 4/12%

= 1,033.34 * ( 1 - ( 1 + 4/12%) ⁻³⁶/ 4/12%

= $35,000

Purchase price = Down payment + Present value of annuity

= 4,000 + 35,000

= $39,000

7 0
2 years ago
Huron has provided the following year-end balances: Cash, $25,000 Patents, $7,900 Accounts receivable, $9,300 Property, plant, a
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$74,900

Explanation:

Given that,

Cash = $25,000

Patents, = $7,900

Accounts receivable, = $9,300

Property, plant, and equipment, = $98,700

Prepaid insurance, = $3,600

Accumulated depreciation, = $10,000

Inventory, = $37,000

Retained earnings, = 15,500

Trademarks, = $12,600

Accounts payable, = $8,000

Goodwill, = $11,000

Therefore,

Huron's current assets:

= Cash + Accounts receivable + Prepaid insurance + Inventory

= $25,000 + $9,300 + $3,600 + $37,000

= $74,900

3 0
2 years ago
​(Annuity payments) Calvin Johnson has a 5000 debt balance on his Visa card that charges 12.9 percent APR compounded monthly. In
olya-2409 [2.1K]

Answer:

41.49 approx 42 months

Explanation:

To calculate the number of months, we use the formula for loan

p = r(pv) / 1 - (1+r)-n

make n subject of the formula

p ( 1 - ( 1+r) ^-n) = r(pv)

p - p (1+r)^-n = r(pv)

p (1+r)^-n = p-r(pv)

(1+r)^-n = (p-r(pv)) / p

( 1+r)^n = p / (p-r(pv))

n In( 1+r) = In (p / (p-r(pv))

n = In ( p/ ( p - r(pv)) / In ( 1 +r)

n is the number of months, p is the payment per months

pv is the present value of 5000

substitute the values given into the equation

n = (In ( 150 / (150 - ( 0.129 / 12 × 5000)) / ( In ( 1 + ( 0.129 / 12) = 41.49 approx 42 months

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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