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grin007 [14]
2 years ago
10

Since the 2008 global financial crisis, the B/L ("bill of lading") of container shipments from Asian factories to the United Sta

tes (US) has increasingly specified US gateway ports, rather than the local RDCs (regional distribution centers) of final markets, as the stopping points (as opposed to through points). What are the main reasons behind this development, and why?
Business
1 answer:
Naddika [18.5K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

BOL can be viewed as the authoritative record that is being given to a shipment organization by the transporter that incorporates the different insights regarding the item. The fundamental purpose behind the BOL to be gathered at the entryway ports is that these BOL are gotten at the port first as this is where the items are gotten in the nation and from that point these items are sent to inland RDCs. The items need to pay the traditions obligations and pass the various customs.

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An owner of a large ranch is considering the purchase of a tractor with a front-end loader to clean his corrals instead of hirin
asambeis [7]

Answer:

1) none of the above  $3828.57 ( E )

2) $1143 ( c )

3)  $24571 ( A )

4)  $17142.86 ( E )

5) 12% ( B )

6) $410 ( B )

7) $2744.95 ( f )

8) $17,489 ( c )

9) $24282.36 ( F )

10) 867

Explanation:

1)  The annual after-tax net returns

net income = cash flow - depreciation

                 = $10500 - \frac{cost of equipment}{estimated life}  =   10500 - (40000/7) = $4785.71

calculate the annual net after tax returns = net income * (1 - Tax rate ) = 4785 * (0.80) = $3828.57

2) Tax savings from depreciation

Tax savings from depreciation = Depreciation amount * Tax rate

                                                   = (\frac{equipment cost}{estimated life} ) * Tax rate

                                                  = (40000/7) * 0.2 = $1142.86 ≈ $1143

3) After tax terminal value in three years

Sale value = $25000,

Book value = 40000 - ( 5714.29 * 3 ) = $22857.13

Gain on sale = sale value - book value = $2142.87

tax rate = gain on sale * tax rate = 2142.87 * 0.2 = $428.57

Terminal value = sales value - tax rate = 25000 - 428.57 ≈ $24571

4) Accumulated depreciation over the three years

= depreciation amount * 3 years

=5714.29 * 3 = $17142.86

5) After tax discount rate

= discount rate * (1 - tax rate )

= 15% * 0.80 = 12%

6) Present value of the after-tax net returns

SOLUTION attached below

7) Present value tax savings from depreciation

= Tax savings from depreciation / ( 1+r)^n  note ; n = 3

= $1142.86 / ( 1 + 0.12 )^3 = $2744.95

8) present value of the after-tax terminal value

Pv of terminal value = Terminal value / ( 1 + r ) ^n

                                = $24571.43 / ( 1 + 0.12 ) ^3 = $17,489

9) Net present value

= net cash flows / ( 1 + r ) ^n

= 34114.29 / ( 1 + 0.12) ^3

= $34114.29 /  1.4049 = $24282.36

AT

7 0
2 years ago
Seventy-Two Inc., a developer of radiology equipment, has stock outstanding as follows: 60,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2%
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Year 1: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $51,000; Dividend paid to common stock = 0.

Year 2: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $93,000; Dividend paid to common stock = $12,000.

Year 3: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000; Dividend paid common stock = $9,000.

Year 4: Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000; Dividend paid common stock = $48,000.

Explanation:

Year 1

Dividend distributed = $51,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $51,000

Carried forward cumulative preferred stock dividend = $72,000 - $51,000 = $21,000

Dividend paid to common stock = 0

Year 2

Dividend distributed = $105,000

Year 2 cumulative preferred stock dividend due = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = Due in year 2 + Carried down from year 1 = $72,000 + $21,000 = $93,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $93,000

Dividend paid to common stock = $105,000 - $93,000 = $12,000

Year 3

Dividend distributed = $81,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000

Dividend paid common stock = $81,000 - $72,000 = $9,000

Year 4

Dividend distributed = $120,000

Cumulative preferred stock dividend payable = 60,000 * $60 * 2% = $72,000

Dividend paid to cumulative preferred stock = $72,000

Dividend paid common stock = $120,000 - $72,000 = $48,000

5 0
2 years ago
Determinant Company is a​ price-taker and uses a​ target-pricing approach. Refer to the following​ information: Production volum
Maru [420]

Answer: good day!

Explanation: you’re awesome

3 0
2 years ago
Dilly Farm Supply is located in a small town in the rural west. Data regarding the store's operations follow: Sales are budgeted
julsineya [31]

Answer:

Accounts payable at the end of December would be $184,500

Explanation:

In order to calculate the Accounts payable at the end of December we would have to calculate the following formula as follows:

Accounts payable at the end of December=cost of goods sold+ Desired ending inventory- Beginning inventory

cost of goods sold=Sales×percentage of cost of goods sold

cost of goods sold=$326,000×75%

cost of goods sold=$244,500

Desired ending inventory=$226,000*75%*80%

Desired ending inventory=$135,600

Beginning inventory=$244,500*80%

Beginning inventory=$195,600

Therefore, Accounts payable at the end of December=$244,500+$135,600  - $195,600

Accounts payable at the end of December=$184,500

Accounts payable at the end of December would be $184,500

5 0
2 years ago
Nieland Industries had one patent recorded on its books as of January 1, 2020. This patent had a book value of $288,000 and a re
oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

The book value of patents should be reported at: $336,000.

Explanation:

Under U.S GAAP, R&D is not permitted to capitalized, thus R&D expenses incurred in the period is not relevant in calculation the book value of patent. On the other hand, successful ligation costs are allowed to be capitalized.

We have the book value of patents = Book value at opening of 2020 + Cost of successful patent infringement suit at 1st December 2020 - amortization of patents in the period of the year 2020;

where: Amortization of patents in the period = 12 months of book value at opening of 2020 amortization + 1 month of Cost of successful patent infringement suit = 288,000/ ( 8 x 12) x 12 + 85,000/( 1 + 7 x 12) x 1 = 37,000 ( as amortization is distributed equally on remaining useful life ( in months))

=> The book value at the end of 2020 = 288,000 + 85,000 - 37,000 = $336,000

3 0
2 years ago
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