Answer:
0.0515 or 5.15%
Explanation:
Given that
Monthly saving (C) = $20
Time (n) = 17 years × 12 months = 204 months
Future value (F) = $6,528.91
Using Future value if annuity due formula:
F = C × (1+r) × [{(1+r) ^n - 1 } ÷ r ]
$6,528.91 = $20 × (1+r) ×[{(1+r) ^204 - 1 } ÷ r ]
After solving this, the r value is
= 0.004288
Now
The annual rate of return is
= 0.004288 × 12 months
= 0.0515 or 5.15%
We simply applied the above formula to get the rate of return
Answer:
57,500
Explanation:
Total required units:
= Expected unit sales + Desired ending finished goods unit
= 50,000 + (25% × 80,000)
= 50,000 + 20,000
= 70,000
Budgeted production for August would be:
= Total required units - Beginning finished goods unit
= 70,000 - (25% × 50,000)
= 70,000 - 12,500
= 57,500
Therefore, the budgeted production for August would be 57,500.
Answer:
it would allow her to earn a fixed amount of interest in her savings account.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario this would benefit her greatly because it would allow her to earn a fixed amount of interest in her savings account. Savings accounts pay the individual an interest rate for merely keeping their money in a savings account. Therefore by doing so she would be making extra money without doing any extra effort.
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
In simple words, while analyzing for the requirements Vivian should take into consideration the present as well as future requirements that may arise. However the length of the analysis should be of reasonable size. The requirements of the relevant stakeholders should only be considered.
If the list is made too short than it may result in future problems of resources also the list should be made on a consistent nature. Thus, the correct option is B.
Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
