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Maurinko [17]
2 years ago
15

You are faced with the probability distribution of the HPR on the stock market index fund given in Spreadsheet 5.1 of the text.

Suppose the price of a put option on a share of the index fund with exercise price of $110 and time to expiration of 1 year is $12, and suppose the risk-free interest rate is 6% per year. You are contemplating investing $107.55 in a 1-year CD and simultaneously buying a call option on the stock market index fund with an exercise price of $110 and expiration of 1 year.
Business
1 answer:
Dima020 [189]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Answer = $114

Explanation:

We are investing $107.55 in CD for 1 year with the risk free rate of 6% per annum.

So, at the end of 1 year we will receive the face value as well as the interest on the same.

So, ending value of CD = 107.55*1.06 (6% interest) = $114.003

= $114

Now, in case of the excellent economic conditions, the ending price of stock is $131. So, here instead of buying the stock from market we will exercise our call option at the rate of $110.

So, value of our call will be:-

Probability * Ending value of CD - cost of call option

= 0.25*114 - 12

= $16.5

So, combined value will be $130.5 (114 + 16.5) which is less than the market price of $131.

In all the other three cases, the end price of stock is less than the ending value of CD. So, instead of exercising the call option, we will purchase the stock from market at less price to make profits.

So, combined value in the other three cases will be the ending value of CD = $114.

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A retail dealer in garments is currently selling 24,000 shirts annually. He supplies the following details for the year ended 31
mamaluj [8]

Answer:

a) Calculate Break-even Point in sales revenue and number of shirts sold.

  • 20,000 shirts
  • $16,000,000

b) What is the margin of safety of the dealer expressed as a percentage .

  • 16.67%

c) Assume that 30, 000 shirts were sold during the year, find out the net profit of the firm.

  • $2,000,000

d) Assuming that in the coming year, an additional staff salary of P1,000, 000 is anticipated, and price of shirt is likely to be increased by 15%, what should be the break-even point in number of shirts and sales?

  • 15,625 shirts
  • $14,375,000

e) If taxation rate is 12.5%, and fixed cost increase to 6 000 000 what is the level of sales that must be achieved to a targeted profit of P8 000 000.

  • 47,322 shirts
  • $43,536,240

Explanation:

selling price per shirt $800 x 24,000 = $19,200,000

variable cost per shirt $600 x 24,000 = $14,400,000

total fixed costs $4,000,000

net income $800,000

contribution margin per unit = $800 - $600 = $200

break even point = $4,000,000 / $200 = 20,000 shirts x $800 = $16,000,000

margin of safety = (current sales - break even point) / current sales = ($19,200,000 - $16,000,000) / $19,200,000 = 16.67%

if 30,000 shirts were sold:

contribution margin 30,000 x $200 = $6,000,000

fixed costs $4,000,000

net income $2,000,000

if sales price increases to $920, contribution margin = $320

fixed costs increase to $5,000,000

break even point = $5,000,000 / 320 = 15,625 shirts x $920 = $14,375,000

fixed costs increase to %6,000,000

targeted profit $8,000,000 + tax rate = $9,142,857

sales target = ($6,000,000 + $9,142,857) / $320 = 47,321.43 ≈ 47,322 shirts

3 0
2 years ago
Initial Outlay -$5,000 Year 1 $3,000 Year 2 $3,500 Year 3 $3,200 Year 4 $2,800 Year 5 $2,500. a. What is the PI if the discount
kkurt [141]

Answer:

a. What is the PI if the discount rate is 20%?

profitability index = present value of cash flows / initial outlay

PI = $9,137.41 / $5,000 = 1.83

b. What is the NPV if the discount rate is 20%?

NPV = -$5,000 + $9,137.41 = $4,137.41

c. What is the IRR if the discount rate is 20%?

the discount rate is irrelevant when you are calculating the IRR, since the IRR is the discussion rte at which the NPV = $0

IRR = 55.23%

Explanation:

Initial Outlay -$5,000

Year 1 $3,000

Year 2 $3,500

Year 3 $3,200

Year 4 $2,800

Year 5 $2,500.

7 0
2 years ago
The Baldwin Company has just purchased $40,900,000 of plant and equipment that has an estimated useful life of 15 years. The exp
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

b. $4,908,000

Explanation:

According to the FASB GAAP, the straight line method is used in this given question which is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($40,900,000 - $4,090,000) ÷ (15 years)

= ($36,810,000) ÷ (15 years)  

= $2,454,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

For two years, the accumulated depreciation would be

= Annual year depreciation × number of years

= $2,454,000 × 2 years

= $4,908,000

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose that when the price of a 16 oz. to-go cup of gourmet coffee is $4.25, students purchase 750 cups per day. If the price d
elixir [45]

Answer:

d. We do not have enough information to answer this question

Explanation:

We could say that maybe if the price lowers by pure law of supply and demand the consumers will consume more cups of coffe but for a more complete answer we need the elasticity of demand of that good (coffe), to be able to know in what quantity a change in the price would affect the demand and to know if the relation between the price and the units buyed are positive or negativa.

5 0
2 years ago
Ursula is a customer of Apexon Bank, which is a member of the FDIC. She has $13,987 in a checking account and $240,000 in her sa
Papessa [141]
The answer to this question is $250,000. It is because in the rules of the FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) they follow a standard insurance amount of $250,000 that is why I have come up with that answer. FDIC also caters to money market deposit accounts and certificate of deposit.
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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