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krok68 [10]
1 year ago
6

Suppose you first want to eliminate the fraction in 4n=1/2(2n-12). What would your first step be? Is -2 still the solution when

you start by eliminating the fraction first? Explain
​
Mathematics
1 answer:
Lisa [10]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Recognize that the (1/2) in  4n=1/2(2n-12)  is a coefficient, the coefficient of the (2n - 12) term.

Thus, multiply both sides of this equation 4n=1/2(2n-12) by 2, to obtain:

8n = 2n - 12

Combining like terms, we get 6n = -12, so that n = -2.  

Multiplying both sides of the equation by a constant does not in any way affect your ability to find a solution and does not change the solution.

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If θ=0rad at t=0s, what is the blade's angular position at t=20s
babunello [35]
The attached figure represents the relation between ω (rpm) and t (seconds)
To find the blade's angular position in radians ⇒ ω will be converted from (rpm) to (rad/s)
              ω = 250 (rpm) = 250 * (2π/60) = (25/3)π    rad/s
              ω = 100 (rpm) = 100 * (2π/60) = (10/3)π    rad/s

and from the figure it is clear that the operation is at constant speed but with variable levels
            ⇒   ω = dθ/dt   ⇒   dθ = ω dt

            ∴    θ = ∫₀²⁰  ω dt  
 
while ω is not fixed from (t = 0) to (t =20)
the integral will divided to 3 integrals as follow;
       ω = 0                                          from t = 0  to t = 5
       ω = 250 (rpm) = (25/3)π            from t = 5   to t = 15
       ω = 100 (rpm) = (10/3)π            from t = 15 to t = 20

∴ θ = ∫₀⁵  (0) dt   + ∫₅¹⁵  (25/3)π dt + ∫₁₅²⁰  (10/3)π dt
     
the first integral = 0
the second integral = (25/3)π t = (25/3)π (15-5) = (250/3)π
the third integral = (10/3)π t = (25/3)π (20-15) = (50/3)π

∴ θ = 0 + (250/3)π + (50/3)π = 100 π

while the complete revolution = 2π
so instantaneously at t = 20
∴ θ = 100 π - 50 * 2 π = 0 rad

Which mean:
the blade will be at zero position making no of revolution = (100π)/(2π) = 50
















3 0
2 years ago
Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory. He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given is :

Jerry makes $40,000 a year working at a nearby factory.

He gets two weeks paid vacation per year, plus five other paid holidays.

So total paid holidays become = 14+5=19 days

Subtracting 19 from 365 days and assuming that Jerry works for 365 days a year.

We get = 365-19=346 days

So, his per day salary will be = \frac{40000}{346}= 115.60

Vacation pays are not included in salaries. Therefore, Jerry's calculation is wrong.

4 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
The most popular mathematician in the world is throwing aparty for all of his friends. As a way to kick things off, they decidet
ratelena [41]

Answer:

The no. of possible handshakes takes place are 45.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : There are 10 people in the party .

To Find: Assuming all 10 people at the party each shake hands with every other person (but not themselves, obviously) exactly once, how many handshakes take place?

Solution:

We are given that there are 10 people in the party

No. of people involved in one handshake = 2

To find the no. of possible handshakes between 10 people we will use combination over here

Formula : ^nC_r=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

n = 10

r= 2

Substitute the values in the formula

^{10}C_{2}=\frac{10!}{2!(10-2)!}

^{10}C_{2}=\frac{10!}{2!(8)!}

^{10}C_{2}=\frac{10 \times 9 \times 8!}{2!(8)!}

^{10}C_{2}=\frac{10 \times 9 }{2 \times 1}

^{10}C_{2}=45

No. of possible handshakes are 45

Hence The no. of possible handshakes takes place are 45.

4 0
1 year ago
I need to find both of the solutions to the equation 100+(n-2)^ = 149
rodikova [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

hello :

100+(n-2)² = 149

100-100+(n-2)² = 149-100

(n-2)² = 49  

(n-2)² - 49  =0    but 49=7²

(n-2)² - 7²  =0   use identity : a²-b²=(a-b)(a+b)

(n-2-7)(n-2+7)=0

(n-9)(n+5)=0

n-9=0 or n+5=0

n=9 or n=-5

                                             

5 0
2 years ago
P=100a÷t solve for a
pishuonlain [190]

<u><em>a=1/100pt is the correct answer.</em></u> First you had to multiply by t from both sides of equation, and it gave us, ⇒ pt=100a. And then you had to flip an equation, and it gave us, ⇒100a=pt. You can also divide by one-hundred (100) from both sides of equation, and it gave us, \frac{100a}{100}=\frac{pt}{100}. And finally, and it gave us the answer is a=1/100pt is the final answer. Hope this helps! And thank you for posting your question at here on brainly, and have a great day. -Charlie

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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